The nurse is teaching a client about seeking medical attention for suspected melanoma skin cancer lesions. The client would demonstrate to the nurse an understanding of teaching by stating "1 will seek medical attention if the mole has:

single color throughout

diameter smaller than 2mm.

has uneven or irregular borders.

Is symmetrical in shape."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Single color throughout:
A mole that is a single, consistent color is typically not a concern for melanoma. However, one of the key warning signs of melanoma is a mole that has multiple colors or shades, such as tan, brown, black, or even red or blue. The presence of more than one color in a mole can indicate melanoma, and the client should be advised to seek medical attention if the mole has varied colors.

B) Diameter smaller than 2mm:
A mole that is smaller than 2mm in diameter is typically not a concern for melanoma. Melanomas are often larger than 6mm in diameter, about the size of a pencil eraser, though smaller melanomas can also occur. A mole smaller than 2mm is usually considered benign, but any change in size, shape, or color, regardless of the starting size, should be evaluated.

C) Has uneven or irregular borders:
One of the primary warning signs of melanoma is the presence of irregular or uneven borders on a mole. Normal moles typically have smooth, even borders, while moles with jagged, blurred, or irregular edges are more likely to be melanoma. The client should seek medical attention if they notice any moles with irregular borders, as this could be a sign of malignancy.

D) Is symmetrical in shape:
A mole that is symmetrical (both halves are the same size and shape) is generally not a concern for melanoma. In contrast, asymmetry (when one half of the mole does not match the other half) is a key warning sign for melanoma. A mole that lacks symmetry should be evaluated by a healthcare provider.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Chemical burns to the posterior neck, chest, and back:
Chemical burns primarily affect the skin and underlying tissues where the chemicals have come into contact. Although chemical burns can cause significant damage, particularly to the respiratory system if inhaled, chemical burns to the posterior neck, chest, and back would not typically require endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy unless there is evidence of inhalation injury or airway compromise.

B) Radiation burns to shoulder and bridge of nose:
Radiation burns, such as those from sunburn or therapeutic radiation, generally do not cause immediate airway compromise or respiratory distress unless the radiation exposure has affected the lungs or upper respiratory tract.

C) Electrical burns to the hands causing dysrhythmias:
Electrical burns can cause significant tissue damage, especially if there is a deep tissue injury and potential for electrical burns to the internal organs. They can lead to dysrhythmias, but these burns are more related to cardiac complications rather than direct airway injury. Endotracheal intubation may be required if there are signs of airway compromise or respiratory failure, but the primary concern with electrical burns would be cardiac monitoring and fluid resuscitation.

D) Thermal burns to the head, neck, face, and airway:
The upper airway (including the mouth, throat, and vocal cords) is particularly vulnerable to thermal injury from inhaling hot gases, smoke, or steam. This can lead to edema and airway obstruction, which can rapidly progress to respiratory failure. Endotracheal intubation or even a tracheostomy may be required to secure the airway and prevent suffocation. Inhalation injury is a significant concern in thermal burns involving the head, neck, and face.

A. increased cardiac output. B. inadequate tissue perfusion. C. fluid overload or deficit D. vasoconstriction of vasculature.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Increased cardiac output:
While cardiac output is an important factor in shock management, the primary goal of nursing care is not specifically to increase cardiac output. Shock typically involves inadequate tissue perfusion, which may be caused by a variety of factors including low cardiac output, vasodilation, or fluid imbalance. The focus of nursing care is to restore adequate perfusion to tissues, which may involve improving cardiac output as part of a larger therapeutic strategy.

B) Inadequate tissue perfusion:
The primary goal in the treatment of shock is to restore adequate tissue perfusion, as shock is defined by a failure of the circulatory system to supply sufficient oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues and organs. Inadequate tissue perfusion can lead to organ dysfunction and, if not addressed, can result in organ failure and death. Nursing interventions are aimed at improving perfusion through fluid resuscitation, vasoactive medications, and other strategies to ensure that oxygen and nutrients are delivered to vital organs.

C) Fluid overload or deficit:
Managing fluid status is crucial in shock, as fluid imbalance (either overload or deficit) can exacerbate the condition. However, fluid overload or deficit is not the primary focus; rather, it is one aspect of managing inadequate tissue perfusion. For example, in hypovolemic shock, the nurse would manage fluid deficit, while in cardiogenic shock, the focus would be on optimizing fluid balance without causing overload.

D) Vasoconstriction of vasculature:
While vasoconstriction can be a compensatory mechanism in certain types of shock (e.g., hypovolemic shock), the primary goal is not to induce vasoconstriction per se. In some cases, vasodilation may occur (as in septic shock), and vasoconstriction could be harmful. The goal is to optimize the vascular tone and perfusion, which may involve vasodilation or vasoconstriction depending on the type of shock.

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The nurse is teaching a client about seeking medical attention for suspected melanoma skin cancer lesions. The client would demonstrate to the nurse an understanding of teaching by stating "1 will seek medical attention if the mole has:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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