The nurse uses the FLACC behavioral scale to assess a 6-year-old's level of postoperative pain and obtains a score of 9. The nurse interprets this to indicate that the child is experiencing:
little to no pain.
mild pain.
moderate pain.
severe pain.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Little to no pain: A FLACC score of 0 indicates relaxation and comfort, reflecting no observable pain behaviors. A score of 9 is far above this range and does not correspond to minimal discomfort.
B. Mild pain: Mild pain is generally represented by FLACC scores between 1 and 3, showing occasional restlessness or minimal facial grimacing. A score of 9 indicates significantly more distress.
C. Moderate pain: Moderate pain corresponds to scores between 4 and 6, showing intermittent crying, tension, or discomfort that is manageable but evident. A score of 9 exceeds this range.
D. Severe pain: A FLACC score of 7–10 reflects severe pain, characterized by frequent crying, rigid body posture, restlessness, and difficulty being consoled. A score of 9 signifies intense discomfort requiring immediate pain management intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Behavioral therapy: Behavioral therapy focuses on modifying specific maladaptive behaviors through reinforcement and conditioning techniques. While effective for older children, it may not be suitable for a 4-year-old who lacks the cognitive maturity to understand behavioral interventions fully.
B. Play therapy: Play therapy is most appropriate for young children because it allows them to express feelings, fears, and experiences through play rather than words. It helps build trust, reduce anxiety, and provides insight into the child’s emotional state, especially following trauma such as abuse.
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy: Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) relies on a child’s ability to identify and modify thought patterns, which typically develops later in childhood. A 4-year-old’s limited abstract thinking makes CBT less effective at this stage.
D. Family therapy: Family therapy can help improve communication and relationships within the family system but may not directly address the child’s need for a safe, nonverbal way to express trauma-related emotions and build trust with the therapist.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Amenorrhea: Uterine fibroids are more commonly associated with menorrhagia (heavy bleeding) or metrorrhagia (irregular bleeding) rather than amenorrhea. Fibroids cause increased uterine lining surface area and vascular congestion, leading to excessive rather than absent menstrual flow.
B. Chronic pelvic pain: Chronic pelvic pain or a feeling of pelvic pressure is a classic symptom of uterine fibroids. The enlarging fibroids can compress surrounding structures, causing discomfort, lower abdominal fullness, and sometimes radiating pain to the lower back or thighs.
C. Upper back pain: Fibroids are located in the uterus, within the pelvic cavity, and are unlikely to cause upper back pain. Pain from fibroids typically presents in the lower abdomen or pelvis due to localized pressure.
D. Diarrhea: Gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea are not typically associated with fibroids. If present, bowel symptoms are more likely due to large fibroids exerting pressure on the rectum, leading to constipation rather than increased bowel motility.
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