A client in the emergency room begins to experience an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used as initial treatment?

A corticosteroid such as fluticasone

A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol

A short-acting, beta 2 agonist such as albuterol

Methylxanthines such Theophylline

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone:
While corticosteroids, such as fluticasone, are effective for managing chronic asthma and preventing inflammation over time, they are not the first-line treatment during an acute asthma attack. Corticosteroids are typically used for long-term control and maintenance therapy, not for rapid relief of symptoms in an acute exacerbation. Immediate relief is needed in acute situations, which corticosteroids alone do not provide.

B) A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol:
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs), such as salmeterol, are used for maintenance therapy to prevent asthma attacks and should not be used for the immediate treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation. They take longer to start working, and their role is to provide prolonged bronchodilation over time, not to relieve sudden bronchoconstriction.

C) A short-acting beta 2 agonist such as albuterol:
During an acute asthma attack, the immediate goal is to relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Short-acting beta-2 agonists like albuterol are the first-line treatment because they quickly relax the smooth muscles of the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Albuterol works within minutes, providing rapid relief from the symptoms of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.

D) Methylxanthines such as Theophylline:
Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline) were once used for asthma management but are no longer considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations due to their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for toxicity. While theophylline can provide bronchodilation, its onset of action is slower than that of beta-agonists like albuterol, and it is generally reserved for more chronic management of asthma or severe cases where other medications are not effective.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Begin initial discharge teaching on home care activities:
While discharge teaching is a vital part of the care process, it is typically an activity assigned to a registered nurse (RN) because it involves comprehensive patient education on topics such as medication management, follow-up care, and recognizing signs of complications. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) often requires intensive care in the acute phase, and the RN is responsible for evaluating the client’s readiness for discharge and ensuring they fully understand the care required at home

B) Begin administration of red blood cells:
Administering blood products, such as red blood cells, requires close monitoring for potential reactions, and it is typically the responsibility of the RN. The RN must assess the client’s baseline status, monitor for transfusion reactions, and adjust care accordingly during the procedure. This task requires a higher level of clinical judgment and nursing knowledge than an LPN.

C) Reassess the client's mobility in the upper extremity:
Reassessing a client’s mobility, especially in a neurological condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome, requires detailed and ongoing assessment to determine changes in the patient’s strength, motor function, and overall neurological status. This activity is a more complex task that requires a registered nurse's clinical expertise.

D) Administration of morphine for pain:
The administration of pain medications, including morphine, can be appropriately assigned to the LPN under the supervision of an RN. The LPN is trained to administer medications and monitor for common side effects such as respiratory depression, especially in clients who may be at risk due to their neurological condition. However, it is essential for the LPN to communicate with the RN and report any significant changes in the client’s condition during pain management.

A. Pneumococcal vaccine B. Influenza vaccine C. COVID - 19 vaccine D. HIB vaccine E. -Rotavirus vaccine

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

A. Pneumococcal vaccine:

The pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for older adults to protect against Streptococcus pneumoniae, a common cause of pneumonia and other invasive diseases. Individuals over 65 years of age are at increased risk for pneumococcal infections, making this vaccine essential for their health.

B. Influenza vaccine:

The influenza vaccine is recommended annually for older adults, as they are at high risk for severe complications from influenza due to age-related immune system decline. Preventing influenza reduces the risk of secondary infections, such as pneumonia.

C. COVID-19 vaccine:

COVID-19 vaccines are strongly recommended for older adults because they are at higher risk for severe illness and complications from COVID-19. Staying up to date with booster doses further reduces the risk of hospitalization and death.

D. HIB vaccine:

The Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) vaccine is not routinely recommended for adults unless they have specific medical conditions, such as asplenia or immunodeficiencies. This vaccine is primarily targeted for infants and young children.

E. Rotavirus vaccine:

The rotavirus vaccine is not recommended for adults. It is specifically designed to prevent rotavirus gastroenteritis in infants and young children. There is no clinical indication for its use in the older adult population.

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A client in the emergency room begins to experience an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used as initial treatment?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

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