The oncoming nurse is assigned to the following clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A 47-year-old who had a colon resection yesterday and is reporting pain
A 20-year-old 2 days postoperative who refuses to ambulate
A newly admitted 88-year-old with a 2-day history of vomiting and loose stools
A 60-year-old who is 3 days post-myocardial infarction and has been stable
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Postoperative pain in a 47-year-old is concerning but not immediately life-threatening unless severe or accompanied by other symptoms (e.g., hemorrhage). Pain management is important, but fluid and electrolyte imbalances from vomiting and diarrhea in an elderly client pose a greater immediate risk, requiring urgent assessment.
Choice B reason: Refusal to ambulate in a 20-year-old postoperative client risks complications like thrombosis but is not an acute emergency. Immobility requires intervention, but dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in an elderly client with vomiting and diarrhea are more urgent, as they can rapidly lead to life-threatening hypovolemia.
Choice C reason: An 88-year-old with vomiting and diarrhea for 2 days is at high risk for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and hypovolemia, especially given age-related reduced physiological reserves. This can lead to shock or organ failure, making it the highest priority for immediate assessment to stabilize fluid and electrolyte status.
Choice D reason: A stable 60-year-old post-myocardial infarction client is not an immediate priority unless new symptoms arise. Stability suggests no acute changes in cardiac status. Vomiting and diarrhea in an elderly client pose a greater immediate risk due to potential rapid deterioration from fluid loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: 10% Dextrose is a hypertonic solution used for caloric supplementation or hypoglycemia treatment. It can cause hyperglycemia and fluid shifts, making it unsuitable for routine preoperative hydration. Surgical patients need balanced electrolyte solutions to replace fluid losses and maintain homeostasis, which 10% dextrose does not provide effectively.
Choice B reason: 3% NaCl, a hypertonic saline, is used for severe hyponatremia or cerebral edema. It risks causing hypernatremia and fluid overload if not carefully monitored. Preoperative patients typically require isotonic fluids to maintain electrolyte balance and hydration, making 3% NaCl inappropriate for standard surgical preparation.
Choice C reason: Lactated Ringer’s is an isotonic solution containing electrolytes like sodium, potassium, and calcium, closely mimicking plasma. It is ideal for preoperative hydration, as it replaces fluid losses, maintains electrolyte balance, and supports hemodynamic stability during surgery. Its balanced composition makes it the standard choice for surgical patients.
Choice D reason: 0.45% NaCl, a hypotonic solution, is used for maintenance hydration or hypernatremia correction. It provides less sodium than needed for surgical fluid replacement and may cause hyponatremia or fluid shifts. Isotonic fluids like Lactated Ringer’s are preferred preoperatively to ensure electrolyte stability and adequate hydration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Non-pharmacological options, like acupressure or aromatherapy, address nausea without medication risks. These interventions stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system or reduce gastric irritation, providing relief. Acting first with these methods is safe, effective, and aligns with holistic care, especially when the next antiemetic dose is not yet due.
Choice B reason: Notifying the provider after rounds delays intervention, as nausea requires prompt relief to prevent distress or vomiting. This approach does not address the client’s immediate need and may prolong discomfort. Non-pharmacological methods should be tried first, as they are within the nurse’s scope and can provide quicker relief.
Choice C reason: Discussing anesthesia’s role in nausea provides education but does not alleviate the client’s current symptoms. This cognitive approach addresses understanding, not immediate comfort. While education is valuable, the priority is relieving nausea, making non-pharmacological interventions a more appropriate first step in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Explaining that no other medications are ordered dismisses the client’s discomfort and does not provide relief. This approach fails to utilize the nurse’s scope to implement non-pharmacological interventions, which can effectively manage nausea. It may also reduce trust, as it does not address the client’s immediate needs.
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