The patient diagnosed with primary hypertension asks why it is called primary and not secondary. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide?
“Secondary hypertension only occurs in people over 65 years of age."
"Primary hypertension does not cause the vascular and organ damage that occurs with secondary hypertension,
“Secondary hypertension has a more gradual onset than primary hypertension."
"Primary hypertension means there is not one single identifiable cause.”
The Correct Answer is D
A. Secondary hypertension is not age-specific. It can occur at any age and is caused by identifiable factors, such as kidney disease, hormone imbalances, or medication use.
B. Primary hypertension can cause vascular and organ damage if left untreated, but secondary hypertension is also associated with organ damage due to the underlying condition. The difference lies in the cause, not the severity of damage.
C. Secondary hypertension often has a more abrupt onset due to the underlying condition, whereas primary hypertension develops more gradually over time.
D. Primary (or essential) hypertension is high blood pressure with no identifiable secondary cause. It is thought to result from a complex interplay of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors. The exact cause is unknown, making it "primary."
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Temperature is not directly related to the effects of nitroglycerin or the client’s need for additional doses.
B. While oxygen saturation is important, it does not directly influence the decision to administer nitroglycerin, which primarily works to relieve chest pain by dilating coronary arteries and reducing myocardial oxygen demand.
C. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can lower blood pressure. It is crucial to check the client’s blood pressure before administering another dose of nitroglycerin because excessive drops in blood pressure can lead to dizziness, fainting, or other complications. If the blood pressure is already low, further administration may be contraindicated.
D. Apical pulse rate is important to monitor but is not the most critical cue in this scenario. Nitroglycerin primarily affects blood pressure and coronary circulation rather than directly influencing heart rate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Antihistamines can raise blood pressure, but this is less likely to be the primary cause compared to medication non-adherence.
B. Acetaminophen is generally safe for use in hypertensive patients and is unlikely to contribute to the high blood pressure in this scenario.
C. Stress can contribute to elevated blood pressure, but non-adherence to medications is a more likely cause of the severe BP elevation in this case.
D. Poor medication adherence is a common cause of elevated blood pressure despite treatment. If the client has not been consistently taking their antihypertensive medications, this could explain the elevated BP and symptoms (headache, blurred vision).
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