The patient's meal has been delivered, the nurse checks the patient's pre-meal blood sugar, and the result is 243 mg/dL. The patient is awake, alert, hungry, and able to swallow.
The next step the nurse should take is:
Administer 25 g of dextrose IVP.
Administer 1 mg Glucagon IM.
Hold the insulin and encourage the patient to eat their meal.
Administer 4 units of Humalog insulin.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Administering dextrose IVP is inappropriate for hyperglycemia. It elevates blood sugar further, risking complications like hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. It is used to treat severe hypoglycemia instead.
Choice B rationale
Glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown into glucose, increasing blood sugar. It is contraindicated in hyperglycemia, as it would aggravate elevated glucose levels. It is a treatment for severe hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale
Holding insulin allows hyperglycemia to persist, increasing risks of complications like ketoacidosis. Insulin administration is essential to reduce the glucose level safely.
Choice D rationale
Rapid-acting insulin like Humalog reduces hyperglycemia efficiently, bringing preprandial blood glucose closer to the target range of 70-130 mg/dL. Administering 4 units is a reasonable corrective dose based on the blood glucose of 243 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Biologic response modifiers are primarily used for autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis due to their ability to target specific components of the immune system. They are not standard for osteoarthritis, as OA is a degenerative joint disease without a significant autoimmune component. These treatments do not address the inflammation or pain related to OA effectively.
Choice B rationale
Opiates are used for severe, short-term pain management but carry risks such as addiction and tolerance. They do not address the underlying inflammation in osteoarthritis. Long-term use is generally avoided for OA as safer options like NSAIDs are more effective for managing chronic symptoms without these risks.
Choice C rationale
Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDs) are more effective for autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. OA lacks the autoimmune pathology targeted by DMARDs, making them unsuitable for managing OA symptoms like pain or stiffness.
Choice D rationale
NSAIDs are the first-line therapy for OA as they effectively reduce both inflammation and pain associated with the condition. By inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin production, leading to improved joint function and symptom control, making them the most common choice for OA symptom management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mixing insulin glargine and lispro in the same syringe is contraindicated due to their incompatible chemical formulations. Glargine’s acidic pH alters lispro’s effectiveness when mixed, impairing glycemic control. Separate administration preserves their individual pharmacokinetics and therapeutic actions.
Choice B rationale
Separate injections ensure each insulin maintains its unique action profile. Glargine provides basal control, while lispro manages rapid postprandial spikes. Their chemical incompatibility mandates separate administration, optimizing glycemic management and reducing potential adverse effects from mixed formulations.
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