The practical nurse (PN) is preparing cefazolin 400 mg IM for a client with a gram-positive infection. The available vial is labeled, "Cefazolin 1 gram," and the instructions for reconstitution state, for IM use, add 2 mL sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution is 2.5 mL. After reconstitution, how many mL should be administered to the client? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the whole number, nearest tenths/hundredth).
The Correct Answer is ["1"]
This is the correct answer because the concentration of cefazolin after reconstitution is 1 gram/2.5 mL, which is equivalent to 400 mg/1 mL. Therefore, to administer 400 mg of cefazolin, the PN should draw up 1 mL of the reconstituted solution. This can be calculated using the formula:
Desired dose / Available dose = Volume to administer
400 mg / 1000 mg = x mL / 2.5 mL
x = (400 x 2.5) / 1000
x = 1 mL

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Observing for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia, is the most important intervention immediately after seclusion because haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to have the potential to cause extrapyramidal side effects. Identifying and managing these side effects promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
Choice A rationale:
Releasing the client as soon as composure is regained may not be safe if the client is still at risk of harming themselves or others. Monitoring for the resolution of symptoms and stabilization is important before releasing the client.
Choice C rationale:
Securing the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings is not the immediate priority. While seclusion rooms should be safe and comfortable, observing for potential side effects takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Providing one-on-one observation at all times is a resource-intensive intervention and may not be necessary for all clients. Observing for extrapyramidal symptoms is more targeted and appropriate in this scenario.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Obtaining a urine specimen for analysis is an important step in the assessment of the client with renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is experiencing severe flank pain and hematuria. Pain management should take precedence.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Severe flank pain in a client with renal calculi is indicative of renal colic, which is typically excruciating. Administering a prescribed opioid analgesic is the priority to relieve the client's pain and distress.
Choice C rationale:
Straining the urine for the presence of stones is an essential nursing intervention to identify and collect any passed stones. However, it is not the most immediate action when the client is in severe pain. Pain management is the priority.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan is an important diagnostic step to assess the location and size of the renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is in severe pain and distress. Pain management should come first.
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