The prenatal clinic nurse monitored women for preeclampsia. All four women were in the clinic at the same time. Which one should the nurse see first?
Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks
Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day
Blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg
Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A) Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks: This is a normal weight gain for a pregnant woman and does not indicate preeclampsia.
Choice B) Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day: This is a common symptom of pregnancy and does not necessarily indicate preeclampsia. It can be relieved by elevating the legs and wearing compression stockings.
Choice C) Blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg: This is a mild elevation of blood pressure and does not meet the criteria for preeclampsia, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least four hours apart.
Choice D) Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine: This is a sign of significant proteinuria, which is one of the main features of preeclampsia. Proteinuria is defined as a urinary protein excretion of 300 mg or more in 24 hours or a dipstick reading of 1+ or higher. A dipstick value of 3+ indicates severe proteinuria and requires immediate attention and treatment. This woman has the highest risk of developing complications from preeclampsia, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, placental abruption, or fetal growth restriction . Therefore, she should be seen by the nurse first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a) This could result in profound bleeding is correct because this is the primary reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination involves inserting a gloved finger or a speculum into the vagina and cervix to assess their dilation, effacement, position, and station. This can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can trigger severe hemorrhage and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this explanation is accurate and appropriate.
Choice b) This could initiate preterm labor is incorrect because this is not the main reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may stimulate uterine contractions, which can lead to preterm labor and delivery. However, this is not the most serious or likely complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the bleeding risk is much higher and more urgent. Therefore, this explanation is incomplete and misleading.
Choice c) There is an increased risk of introducing infection is incorrect because this is not a specific reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may introduce bacteria or other microorganisms into the vagina or cervix, which can cause infection and inflammation. However, this is a general risk that applies to any pregnant woman who undergoes an internal examination, not just those who have placenta previa. Therefore, this explanation is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice d) There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes is incorrect because this is not a relevant reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may cause rupture of the membranes, which are the sacs that contain the amniotic fluid and the fetus. However, this is not a significant or common complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the membranes are usually located above or away from the placenta and cervix. Therefore, this explanation is improbable and inaccurate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A) Obtain an oxygen saturation: This is not a priority action because it does not address the underlying cause of the respiratory distress, which is meconium aspiration. Meconium aspiration can cause airway obstruction, inflammation, infection, and pulmonary hypertension in the newborn. Oxygen saturation may be low, but it is not a reliable indicator of the severity of the condition.
Choice B) Stimulate the baby to increase respirations: This is not a priority action because it may worsen the respiratory distress by increasing the work of breathing and causing more meconium to be aspirated. Stimulation may also cause stress and hypoxia in the newborn.
Choice C) Prepare to initiate ECMO: This is not a priority action because it is a last resort treatment for severe cases of meconium aspiration syndrome that do not respond to conventional therapies. ECMO stands for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation, which is a form of life support that bypasses the lungs and provides oxygen to the blood.
ECMO has many risks and complications, such as bleeding, infection, and organ damage. It should only be used when other options have failed and with the consent of the parents.
Choice D) Notify the provider at once: This is the correct action because it allows for prompt assessment and intervention by the provider, who can initiate appropriate treatments for meconium aspiration syndrome. These may include suctioning of the airway, administration of antibiotics, surfactant, or inhaled nitric oxide, and mechanical ventilation . Early treatment can improve the outcomes and reduce the complications of meconium aspiration syndrome.
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