Two days after admission for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an older client's arterial blood gas (ABC) indicate an acid base imbalance. The client's laboratory results reveal a low hemoglobin level, an elevated creatinine clearance, and decreased urine specific gravity. Which is the most likely cause for the acid base imbalance?

Myocardial infarction one year ago.

Occasional use of antacids.

Chronic renal insufficiency.

Shortness of breath with exertion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Myocardial infarction one year ago:

A myocardial infarction (MI) that occurred one year ago is not directly related to the current acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. While a history of MI may have implications for the client's overall cardiovascular health and management, it is not the most likely cause of the acid-base imbalance indicated by the laboratory results.

B. Occasional use of antacids:

Occasional use of antacids is unlikely to cause the acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. Antacids primarily work by neutralizing gastric acid and are not typically associated with significant alterations in acid-base status, especially when used intermittently.

C. Chronic renal insufficiency:

Chronic renal insufficiency is the most likely cause of the acid-base imbalance indicated by the laboratory results. A low hemoglobin level suggests anemia, which can occur in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production. An elevated creatinine clearance indicates impaired kidney function, as the kidneys are clearing creatinine at a faster rate than normal. Decreased urine specific gravity suggests the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, which is a common finding in renal insufficiency. Renal insufficiency can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys' decreased ability to excrete acid and regulate bicarbonate levels.

D. Shortness of breath with exertion:

Shortness of breath with exertion, a symptom commonly seen in COPD exacerbations, is unlikely to directly cause the acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. While respiratory distress can lead to respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by elevated carbon dioxide levels and decreased pH, the laboratory results indicate metabolic rather than respiratory acidosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Acute leukemia, including acute myeloid leukemia (AML), involves the proliferation of abnormal myeloblasts (immature white blood cells) in the bone marrow, leading to decreased production of normal blood cells. Here's the breakdown of the pathophysiology contributing to bruising in acute leukemia:

A) Oxyhemoglobin provides less oxygen to tissues:

Oxyhemoglobin refers to hemoglobin bound to oxygen, and its role is in oxygen transport, not in the process of bruising. Therefore, this option is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia.

B) Insufficient platelets delay the clotting process:

Correct. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is a common complication of acute leukemia due to the replacement of normal bone marrow cells with leukemia cells, leading to inadequate production of platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in hemostasis and clot formation. Insufficient platelets result in delayed clotting, leading to easy bruising and bleeding tendencies in patients with acute leukemia.

C) Phagocytic cells are inadequate in fighting infection:

Leukopenia, or low white blood cell count, can occur in acute leukemia due to suppression of normal hematopoiesis by leukemia cells in the bone marrow. While leukopenia predisposes patients to infections due to impaired immune function, it is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising.

D) Lack of iron causes hypochromic blood cells:

Iron deficiency anemia can result in hypochromic red blood cells, but this is not typically associated with the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia. Anemia may contribute to other symptoms such as fatigue and pallor, but bruising primarily results from thrombocytopenia-induced clotting abnormalities.

A. An increase in afterload results in decreased systolic pressure, which creates a decreased cardiac output. B. A decrease in afterload causes the cardiac muscles to hypertrophy, resulting in increased diastolic volume. C. An increase in preload results in greater shortening of myocardial fibers, thereby increasing contractility. D. A decrease in preload results in increasing diastolic muscle fiber length, which impedes contractility.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) An increase in afterload results in decreased systolic pressure, which creates a decreased cardiac output:

This statement is not consistent with the Frank-Starling law. Afterload refers to the resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. An increase in afterload typically results in increased systolic pressure, not decreased, as the heart works harder to overcome the increased resistance. However, increased afterload can lead to decreased cardiac output due to the increased work of the heart.

B) A decrease in afterload causes the cardiac muscles to hypertrophy, resulting in increased diastolic volume:

This statement is not consistent with the Frank-Starling law. Afterload refers to the pressure or resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. A decrease in afterload typically reduces the workload on the heart, which may lead to reverse remodeling and a reduction in cardiac hypertrophy. Increased diastolic volume may occur due to reduced afterload, but it's not the direct result of hypertrophy.

C) An increase in preload results in greater shortening of myocardial fibers, thereby increasing contractility:

Correct. According to the Frank-Starling law, an increase in preload (end-diastolic volume or stretch of myocardial fibers) leads to greater overlap of actin and myosin filaments within myocardial fibers during systole. This increased overlap results in stronger myocardial contraction (increased contractility), leading to an increased stroke volume and cardiac output.

D) A decrease in preload results in increasing diastolic muscle fiber length, which impedes contractility:

This statement is not consistent with the Frank-Starling law. Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the myocardial fibers at the end of diastole. A decrease in preload would lead to decreased stretch of the myocardial fibers, not increasing diastolic muscle fiber length. Decreased preload typically results in decreased contractility rather than impediment to contractility due to reduced myocardial stretch.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is explaining the underlying cause of bruising with a client who is recently diagnosed with acute leukemia. Which pathophysiology is a result of the myeloblastic dysfunction of leukemia?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which statement is true regarding myocardial functioning in the normal heart, based upon the Frank Starling law?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is explaining the underlying cause of bruising with a client who is recently diagnosed with acute leukemia. Which pathophysiology is a result of the myeloblastic dysfunction of leukemia?

The nurse is caring for an older client who is on complete bed rest. The nurse notes hematuria when the client suddenly reports excruciating pain that radiates from the back to the groin. Which pathological process has contributed to the client's clinical presentation of a possible renal calculi?

During an interview with a male client who has Parkinson's disease (PD), the nurse notices that he is drooling and mumbling. Which pathophysiological factor contributes to the client's inability to express himself?

A client reports experiencing blurry central vision that has recently worsened. Which pathological process supports the client's subjective report?

The nurse admits a client with sepsis and has developed cool ecchymotic fingertips and toes. The healthcare provider determines that the client has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which findings support the pathophysiology of DIC?

A client is being treated for a gastric ulcer caused by Heliobacter pylori. The nurse should prepare the client for long term follow-up to which associated problem?

The nurse is caring for a client who experienced multiple invasive trauma from a motor vehicle collision and has developed systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Which pathophysiological process is most likely associated with the development of SIRS in this client?