A nurse is preparing to administer a heparin infusion of 25,000 units in 250 mL of normal saline at a rate of 1000 units per hour for a client diagnosed with a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). The client’s initial activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value is 35 seconds.

Which laboratory result would indicate that the aPTT is at a therapeutic level?

30 seconds

45 seconds

60 seconds

75 seconds

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Step 1 is to understand the therapeutic range for aPTT when a patient is on heparin therapy. The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value. Given that the normal aPTT value is around 30-40 seconds, the therapeutic range would be approximately 45-100 seconds. Therefore, an aPTT value of 75 seconds falls within this therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin therapy is effective.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

After a femoral-popliteal bypass, the client should be placed in a supine position with the right leg extended and flat. This position helps to prevent kinking and occlusion of the graft, which could lead to complications such as graft thrombosis.

Choice B rationale

High-Fowler’s position with the right leg extended is not recommended. This position could put strain on the surgical site and potentially compromise the graft.

Choice C rationale

Supine with the right leg flexed at a 45-degree angle is not advised. Flexing the leg could lead to kinking of the graft and subsequent complications.

Choice D rationale

Semi-Fowler’s with the right leg on two pillows is not the optimal position. While elevation can help with swelling, excessive elevation could potentially compromise blood flow to the graft.

A. The client is at increased risk for developing hypoglycemia. B. The client is demonstrating signs of insulin resistance. C. The client is demonstrating good control of blood glucose. D. The client is at increased risk for developing hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The client’s fasting blood glucose level, postprandial blood glucose level, and hemoglobin A1c level are all within the target range for good blood glucose control in diabetes. Therefore, the client is not at an increased risk for developing hypoglycemia.

Choice B rationale

Insulin resistance is a characteristic of type 2 diabetes, not type 1 diabetes. The client’s blood glucose levels are well controlled, which suggests that the client’s insulin regimen is effective, not that the client is demonstrating signs of insulin resistance.

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has just returned to the surgical unit following a femoral-popliteal bypass of the right leg. In which position should the nurse place the client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

The client, on an intensified insulin regimen, consistently has a fasting blood glucose between 70 and 80 mg/dL, a postprandial blood glucose level below 200 mg/dL, and a hemoglobin A1c level of 5.5%. What is the nurse’s interpretation of these findings?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

A client with diabetes has returned from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) of the left leg. Which physician’s order should the nurse implement?

The client has been receiving vancomycin 1 gram IV every 12 hours for 2 days. What nursing actions are appropriate when administering this medication? (Select all that apply)

A client diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease has the nursing problem of Impaired Tissue Integrity related to ischemic tissue of the legs and feet. What is an expected outcome to include in the care plan?

The nurse receives an order to administer cefazolin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. The nurse withholds the medication and notifies the health care provider because the client:

The nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with post-thrombotic syndrome who has a venous stasis ulcer. Which instructions should be given prior to discharge? (Select all that apply)

The nurse is explaining to a patient why oral antihyperglycemic agents are not effective in Type 1 diabetes. What is the reason?