Upon assessment of your patient, their breathing rate is 24, they have a toxic appearance, and an SpO2 of 90%. You plan to call the MD to report your findings.
What do you anticipate that she will order?
Stat ABG.
Benzodiazepine administration.
KUB X-ray.
Opioid administration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Given the patient's tachypnea (breathing rate 24), toxic appearance, and SpO2 of 90%, a Stat Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) is the most appropriate anticipated order. These findings suggest potential respiratory compromise and metabolic derangements. An ABG provides crucial information about the patient's oxygenation, ventilation (CO2 levels), and acid-base status, guiding immediate medical interventions to correct imbalances. Normal breathing rate is 12-20 breaths per minute.
Choice B rationale
Benzodiazepine administration would be indicated for anxiety or seizure activity, but the primary concern here is the physiological signs of respiratory distress and potential hypoxia. While anxiety can exacerbate dyspnea, the immediate diagnostic priority is to assess the severity of respiratory compromise before administering sedatives, which could further depress respiratory drive if not carefully titrated.
Choice C rationale
A KUB (Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder) X-ray is an imaging study of the abdomen, primarily used to evaluate the urinary tract or identify abdominal pathology. It would not provide any relevant information regarding the patient's respiratory status, SpO2, or "toxic appearance.”. Therefore, it is not an anticipated order in this clinical scenario focused on respiratory compromise.
Choice D rationale
Opioid administration is primarily for pain management. While pain can contribute to tachypnea, the combination of a toxic appearance and hypoxemia points more towards a respiratory or systemic illness rather than isolated pain. Administering opioids could potentially depress respiratory drive, which would be detrimental to a patient already experiencing respiratory distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist, primarily causing bronchodilation by stimulating beta-2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to cyclic AMP production and muscle relaxation. While beneficial for bronchospasm, it does not directly address the severe hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis indicated by the patient's ABG (pH 7.21, CO2 75), which suggests significant ventilatory failure beyond simple bronchodilation.
Choice B rationale
BiPAP (Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure) provides non-invasive ventilatory support, delivering inspiratory and expiratory positive airway pressure. This improves alveolar ventilation by increasing tidal volume and reducing the work of breathing, effectively decreasing the elevated CO2 (75 mmHg, normal range 35-45 mmHg) and improving the acidotic pH (7.21, normal range 7.35-7.45) in a patient with acute hypercapnic respiratory failure exacerbated by COPD.
Choice C rationale
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 1 L/min may worsen hypercapnia in COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention, due to the blunting of hypoxic drive. Their primary respiratory stimulus is hypoxia, and providing supplemental oxygen can suppress this drive, further depressing ventilation and exacerbating CO2 retention, which is already dangerously high at 75 mmHg. The SpO2 of 87% (normal range 95-100%) indicates hypoxemia, but the primary issue is ventilatory failure.
Choice D rationale
Breathing into a paper bag increases the rebreathing of exhaled CO2, which is a therapeutic intervention for hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. In this patient, the ABG shows significant respiratory acidosis (pH 7.21, CO2 75 mmHg), meaning they are retaining too much CO2. Therefore, increasing CO2 rebreathing would exacerbate the already severe hypercapnia and acidosis, leading to further decompensation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reverse Trendelenburg positions the patient with the head higher than the feet. While this can reduce venous pressure in the lower extremities, it is not the optimal position for infratentorial tumor resection as it may not adequately facilitate venous drainage from the posterior fossa and could increase pressure on the incision site.
Choice B rationale
Semi-Fowlers position, with the head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees, is often used for supratentorial surgeries to promote venous drainage. However, for infratentorial tumor removal, this position can put undue pressure on the operative site due to gravity, potentially leading to complications such as swelling and CSF leakage.
Choice C rationale
Positioning the patient flat on their side is the recommended approach after infratentorial surgery. This position prevents pressure on the incision site and promotes optimal venous and cerebrospinal fluid drainage from the posterior fossa. It also helps to prevent complications such as tentorial herniation and brainstem compression.
Choice D rationale
High Fowlers position, with the head of the bed elevated to 60-90 degrees, is generally contraindicated after infratentorial surgery. This position significantly increases pressure on the posterior fossa incision due to gravity and can compromise cerebral venous outflow, potentially leading to increased intracranial pressure and other neurological deficits.
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