What is a significant discovery from the Human Genome Project?
The genome is composed of approximately 1,000 genes.
Human genes produce three proteins per gene, unlike other mammals which produce only one.
All humans are 99.9% identical at the DNA level.
Single gene testing will become a standardized test for all patients in the future.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. The Human Genome Project revealed that humans have approximately 20,000-25,000 genes, not 1,000. This finding significantly expanded our understanding of the complexity of the human genome.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. The concept of one gene producing three proteins is not a discovery from the Human Genome Project. While some genes can produce multiple protein isoforms through alternative splicing, this is not a universal feature of human genes.
Choice C rationale:
Correct. This is a major finding from the Human Genome Project. It highlights that despite our apparent differences, humans share a remarkably high degree of genetic similarity. This finding has implications for understanding human evolution, disease susceptibility, and pharmacogenomics.
Key points:
The vast majority of our DNA is shared among all humans.
The small percentage of genetic variation accounts for individual differences and diversity.
This finding challenges previous notions of race and ethnicity based on genetic differences.
It emphasizes the common origins and shared heritage of all humans.
Choice D rationale:
Incorrect. While single gene testing has become more common for certain genetic disorders, it is unlikely to become a standardized test for all patients in the future. This is due to the complexity of human genetics and the diverse factors that contribute to health and disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A positive contraction stress test (CST) indicates a potential problem with the fetal heart's response to uterine contractions, not spontaneous accelerations.
It's not consistent with the findings in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
A negative CST would show no late decelerations in response to contractions, but it's not relevant here because contractions weren't induced.
Choice D rationale:
A non-reactive NST lacks the required accelerations, which are present in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Definition of reactive NST: A reactive NST is a reassuring fetal heart test that demonstrates a healthy fetal heart rate response to fetal movement. It's characterized by two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.
Significance of the findings: The presence of three accelerations measuring 15 bpm by 15 seconds within 20 minutes meets the criteria for a reactive NST. This suggests that the fetal nervous system is functioning well and responding appropriately to stimuli, indicating a healthy fetal heart rate pattern.
Nurse's reporting: The nurse should accurately report this finding to the provider as a "reactive nonstress test (NST)." This information is crucial for clinical decision-making regarding the ongoing management of the pregnancy.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
The correct answers are B, C, E, and F.
Rationale for each choice:
- Albuterol
Mechanism of action: Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that stimulates beta-2 receptors in the cell membranes of skeletal muscle, liver, and adipose tissue. This stimulation causes an increase in intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP), which activates protein kinase A (PKA). PKA then phosphorylates a number of proteins, including the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. This pump is responsible for transporting potassium ions into cells and out of the bloodstream. By increasing the activity of this pump, albuterol can help to lower serum potassium levels.
Onset of action: Albuterol has a rapid onset of action, typically within 30 minutes.
Duration of action: The duration of action of albuterol is relatively short, usually 4-6 hours.
Dosage: The dosage of albuterol for hyperkalemia is typically 10-20 mg nebulized every 4-6 hours.
Additional considerations: Albuterol can cause tachycardia and tremors. It should be used cautiously in patients with heart disease or hyperthyroidism.
- Kayexalate
Mechanism of action: Kayexalate is a cation exchange resin that binds to potassium ions in the gastrointestinal tract. This prevents the potassium from being absorbed into the bloodstream.
Onset of action: Kayexalate has a relatively slow onset of action, usually 1-2 hours.
Duration of action: The duration of action of Kayexalate is relatively long, usually 4-6 hours.
Dosage: The dosage of Kayexalate for hyperkalemia is typically 15-30 grams orally or rectally every 6 hours.
Additional considerations: Kayexalate can cause constipation and hypocalcemia. It should be used cautiously in patients with bowel obstruction or kidney disease.
- Insulin & dextrose
Mechanism of action: Insulin promotes the movement of potassium into cells, thus lowering serum potassium levels. Dextrose is given along with insulin to prevent hypoglycemia.
Onset of action: Insulin has a rapid onset of action, typically within 30 minutes.
Duration of action: The duration of action of insulin is relatively short, usually 4-6 hours.
Dosage: The dosage of insulin for hyperkalemia is typically 10 units of regular insulin IV push, followed by an infusion of 5-10 units per hour. The dosage of dextrose is typically 50 grams IV push, followed by an infusion of 10% dextrose at 100 mL/hour.
Additional considerations: Insulin can cause hypoglycemia. It should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.
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