A pregnant woman is getting ready for a chorionic villus sampling procedure at 10 weeks.
The nurse has been educating her about the procedure.
Which of the following statements, if made by the client, would indicate that the teaching has been effective?
“Fetal lung maturity can be determined through a chorionic villus sampling.”
“I will have to have a non-stress test (NST) after the procedure to check the baby’s well-being.”
“The chorionic villus sampling is a non-invasive screening procedure.”
“Chorionic villus sampling can detect genetic abnormalities in the first trimester.”
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Fetal lung maturity is not assessed through chorionic villus sampling (CVS). It's primarily evaluated through amniocentesis, a different prenatal diagnostic procedure that involves sampling amniotic fluid.
CVS focuses on placental tissue, not lung development.
It's essential for clients to understand the specific purposes of each prenatal test to make informed decisions and have accurate expectations.
Choice B rationale:
While a non-stress test (NST) might be recommended after CVS in some cases, it's not a routine part of the procedure.
The decision to conduct an NST is based on individual risk factors and assessment by healthcare providers.
It's essential for clients to understand the potential need for additional testing but not assume it's always required.
Choice C rationale:
CVS is considered an invasive procedure, as it involves entering the uterus to collect placental tissue.
Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) methods, which analyze fetal DNA in maternal blood, are available for screening purposes.
It's crucial for clients to differentiate between invasive and non-invasive prenatal testing options to make informed choices based on their preferences and risk factors.
Choice D rationale:
This statement accurately reflects the primary purpose of CVS.
It's a diagnostic procedure that can detect various genetic abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and TaySachs disease, during the first trimester of pregnancy.
Understanding the ability to detect genetic abnormalities early in pregnancy allows clients to make informed decisions about their pregnancy management and prepare for potential outcomes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement suggests that the patient has some awareness of infertility treatments, but it does not necessarily indicate a full understanding of infertility itself.
It's important to consider that a few months of trying to conceive may not be indicative of infertility, as it can take up to a year for healthy couples to achieve pregnancy.
Jumping to fertility treatments without a proper evaluation could lead to unnecessary interventions and potential financial and emotional burdens.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Male factor infertility is a common cause of difficulty conceiving, accounting for about 40% of infertility cases.
It's essential to evaluate both partners when assessing fertility issues.
Choice C rationale:
This statement demonstrates the patient's understanding of the relationship between age and fertility.
Female fertility gradually declines with age, especially after the age of 35, due to a decrease in the number and quality of eggs.
This awareness indicates that the patient is realistic about her chances of conceiving and is prepared to seek appropriate help if needed.
Choice D rationale:
While family history can play a role in infertility, it's not a guarantee that someone will experience the same issues as their relatives.
Each case is unique, and multiple factors can contribute to infertility, including genetics, lifestyle, medical conditions, and environmental factors.
It's important to undergo a thorough evaluation to determine the specific causes of infertility in each individual.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Only one copy of the variant gene is needed for expression of the disease.
Choice A rationale:
Huntington's disease (HD) is not typically diagnosed in childhood. While symptoms can sometimes manifest in adolescence or early adulthood, the average age of onset is between 30 and 50 years old.
Early-onset HD, which occurs before the age of 20, is much rarer and accounts for only about 5-10% of cases.
It's crucial to convey accurate information about the typical age of onset to avoid unnecessary anxiety and unwarranted testing in children.
Choice B rationale:
The statement "If you are a carrier, there is a 25% chance your child will inherit the gene" is not entirely accurate for autosomal dominant disorders like HD.
If a parent has HD, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutated gene, not 25%. This is because the parent with HD has one mutated copy of the gene and one normal copy.
During conception, each child randomly receives one copy of the gene from each parent. Therefore, there's a 50% chance the child will receive the mutated copy and a 50% chance they'll receive the normal copy.
Choice D rationale:
Referral to a genetic counselor is essential for all individuals with a family history of HD, regardless of their carrier status.
Genetic counselors can provide comprehensive information about HD, including: Inheritance patterns
Risk assessment
Testing options
Reproductive options
Support resources
Psychosocial counseling
They can assist individuals in making informed decisions about testing, family planning, and management of the condition.
Choice C is the correct answer because:
HD is indeed an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease.
This contrasts with autosomal recessive disorders, which require two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) for the disease to manifest.
Understanding the pattern of inheritance is crucial for accurate risk assessment and genetic counseling.
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