What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?
Penicillin
Acyclovir
Doxycycline
Podofilox
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Anxiety due to hospitalization is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Anxiety can cause some symptoms, such as headache, palpitations, or sweating, but it does not cause visual changes or epigastric pain. Anxiety is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.
Choice B reason: Effects of magnesium sulfate are not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Magnesium sulfate is a medication used to prevent seizures and lower blood pressure in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It can cause some side effects, such as flushing, nausea, or drowsiness, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. In fact, magnesium sulfate can help relieve these symptoms by reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm caused by pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice C reason: Worsening disease and impending convulsion are the most likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. These signs indicate that the patient is developing severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are life-threatening complications of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and signs of organ damage, such as headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, or decreased urine output. Eclampsia is the occurrence of seizures in a patient with preeclampsia. These conditions can lead to stroke, bleeding, placental abruption, or fetal distress, and require immediate medical attention.
Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal upset is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Gastrointestinal upset can cause some symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. Gastrointestinal upset is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition that affects the blood vessels and organs, not the digestive system.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The NST has no known contraindications, as it is a non-invasive and safe test that does not stimulate uterine contractions or cause fetal distress. It is the most widely used method of antepartum fetal surveillance.
Choice B reason: The NST is not slightly more expensive than the CST, as it requires less time and equipment. The NST usually takes 20 to 40 minutes, while the CST may take up to 2 hours. The NST only needs a fetal monitor, while the CST also needs an intravenous line and oxytocin infusion.
Choice C reason: The NST does not have fewer false-positive results than the CST, as it has a higher rate of nonreactive results that may indicate fetal compromise when there is none. A nonreactive NST is one that does not show at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period.
Choice D reason: The NST is not more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise than the CST, as it has a lower predictive value for fetal well-being. A reactive NST is one that shows at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period. However, a reactive NST does not rule out the possibility of fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
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