What should a nurse know about the contraction stress test (CST) when providing care for the antepartum woman?
It sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation.
It is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.
It is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated.
It is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.
It is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Vibroacoustic stimulation is a technique that uses sound to stimulate the fetus and elicit a response. It is sometimes used in conjunction with the nonstress test (NST), not the CST. The NST measures the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement, while the CST measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions.
Choice B reason: A negative CST result means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. Late decelerations are decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends. They indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. A negative CST result is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor².
Choice C reason: The CST is not an invasive test, as it does not involve inserting any instruments or devices into the uterus or the fetus. However, it does require stimulating contractions, either by giving the pregnant woman oxytocin (a hormone that causes uterine contractions) or by having her rub her nipples (which also releases oxytocin). The contractions can be uncomfortable and may trigger preterm labor in some cases.
Choice D reason: The CST is not more effective than the NST if the membranes have already been ruptured. In fact, the CST is contraindicated (not recommended) in women who have ruptured membranes, as it can increase the risk of infection and bleeding. The NST is a safer and simpler alternative to the CST, as it does not require stimulating contractions. However, the NST may not be as reliable as the CST in detecting fetal compromise.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Magnesium sulfate does not improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency. In fact, it may cause hyporeflexia and respiratory depression as adverse effects. These are signs of magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.
Choice B reason: Magnesium sulfate does not prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow. A boggy uterus is a sign of uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth. Magnesium sulfate has no effect on these conditions.
Choice C reason: Magnesium sulfate does not shorten the duration of labor. It may actually prolong labor by relaxing the uterine muscles and inhibiting contractions. Magnesium sulfate is not used to induce or augment labor.
Choice D reason: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent and treat convulsions in women with preeclampsia and eclampsia. Convulsions are a life-threatening complication of severe hypertension during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and anticonvulsant. It reduces the risk of seizures and lowers blood pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
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