What is the dosage on the drug label below?
100 mg
125 mg
25 mg
75 mg
The Correct Answer is C
A. 100 mg:. The label clearly states that each capsule contains 25 mg of Indomethacin. There is no indication that multiple capsules are taken at once unless prescribed, so 100 mg is incorrect for a single capsule dosage.
B. 125 mg: This is not the indicated dose per capsule.
C. 25 mg: The label clearly indicates that each capsule contains 25 mg of Indomethacin. This is the correct dosage per capsule. Indomethacin is often available in 25 mg increments for safe titration and individualized dosing based on patient need.
D. 75 mg: While 75 mg is a common dosage form for some extended-release Indomethacin preparations, this particular label shows 25 mg immediate-release capsules. There is no mention of 75 mg on the drug label in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. To decrease the cost of medication for the patient: While cost may be a consideration in long-term therapy, it is not the primary reason for tapering corticosteroids. The tapering process is necessary to protect the patient’s physiological balance, not driven by cost concerns.
B. To prevent the risk of acute adrenal insufficiency: Long-term prednisone use suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. Abrupt discontinuation can lead to adrenal insufficiency, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by hypotension, fatigue, and electrolyte imbalances. Gradual tapering allows the adrenal glands to resume natural cortisol production.
C. To minimize the potential for drug interactions: Tapering does not reduce drug interactions. Such risks are managed through medication reconciliation and monitoring, not by adjusting steroid taper schedules.
D. To reduce the likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis flare-up: While tapering may reduce flare risk, the primary concern is adrenal suppression. Flare prevention is managed with other disease-modifying agents rather than the tapering schedule alone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "The risk of suicidal thoughts is highest during the first few weeks of treatment.": This is the most accurate statement. During the initial weeks of antidepressant therapy, especially in adolescents and young adults, the risk of suicidal ideation may increase as energy levels improve before mood stabilizes. Close monitoring during this period is critical.
B. "Antidepressants eliminate the risk of suicidal thoughts in all patients.": While antidepressants help many patients, they do not eliminate the risk of suicidal thoughts. Some individuals may continue to experience or even develop new suicidal ideation, particularly early in treatment.
C. "Suicidal thoughts are a common side effect experienced by most patients.": Suicidal ideation is a serious but not common side effect. It occurs in a subset of patients, particularly younger individuals, and must be monitored closely, but it is not experienced by the majority.
D. "Suicidal thoughts only occur in patients with a history of suicide attempts.": Suicidal ideation can develop in individuals without a previous history. Risk factors include age, underlying psychiatric conditions, and individual response to medication—not just past behavior.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.