What is the main action of anticoagulant drugs?
To dissolve the existing clots.
To transport platelets.
To act as a fibrinolytic agent.
To prevent further clots from forming.
The Correct Answer is D
Anticoagulant drugs are medicines that prevent blood clots from forming or growing larger.
They do not dissolve existing clots or transport platelets. They work by interfering with different steps of the blood coagulation pathway, which is the process that leads to clot formation.
Choice A is wrong because anticoagulant drugs do not dissolve existing clots.
To dissolve clots, you need fibrinolytic drugs, which break down the fibrin mesh that holds the clots together.
Choice B is wrong because anticoagulant drugs do not transport platelets.
Platelets are blood cells that stick together to form clots.
Anticoagulant drugs may affect the function of platelets, but they do not move them around.
Choice C is wrong because anticoagulant drugs do not act as fibrinolytic agents.
Fibrinolytic agents are drugs that activate plasmin, an enzyme that breaks down fibrin.
Anticoagulant drugs may inhibit the formation of fibrin, but they do not break it down.
Some examples of anticoagulant drugs are warfarin, heparin, and factor Xa inhibitors.
The normal ranges for some blood tests that measure the effects of anticoagulants are:
• Prothrombin time (PT): 11 to 13.5 seconds
• International normalized ratio (INR): 0.8 to 1.2
• Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 25 to 35 seconds
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of urine and salt (sodium) excreted by the kidneys. They are used to treat high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema (fluid retention). However, some diuretics can cause low levels of potassium in the blood (hypokalemia), which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and arrhythmias. To prevent this, a combination of diuretics acting on different parts of the kidney (such as a loop diuretic and a thiazide diuretic) may be prescribed.This way, the potassium-sparing effect of one diuretic can balance the potassium-wasting effect of the other, while still achieving a net sodium loss.
Choice A is wrong because they are not a part of the initial diuretic therapy.Combination diuretic therapy is usually reserved for patients who are resistant to or intolerant of monotherapy.
Choice C is wrong because little follow up is not needed after the initial treatment.Patients on combination diuretic therapy require close monitoring of their blood pressure, electrolytes, renal function, and weight to avoid adverse effects such as dehydration, hyponatremia, hypotension, and worsening renal function.
Choice D is wrong because they do not increase the risk of hypokalemia.As explained above, combination diuretic therapy aims to reduce the risk of hypokalemia by using a potassium-sparing diuretic along with a potassium-wasting diuretic.
Normal ranges for serum potassium are 3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L and for serum sodium are 135 to 145 mmol/L.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Intermittent claudication is a condition where leg pain is produced upon increased activity and ischemia to tissues, but then the pain is reduced with rest.This is because the lack of oxygen to the muscles causes pain, and resting allows the blood flow to resume.
Choice B, sporadic ischemia, is wrong because it is not a specific condition, but a general term for reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ.
Choice C, angina, is wrong because it is a chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, not the legs.
Choice D, paresthesia, is wrong because it is a sensation of tingling, numbness, or prickling in the skin, not pain.
It can be caused by various conditions, such as nerve damage, diabetes, or Raynaud’s disease.
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