What is the mechanism of action of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors (SGLT-2 inhibitors)?

Blocks glucose reabsorption by the kidneys and increases glucose excretion to lower blood sugar

Interacts with the transcription factor that improves insulin sensitivity in the liver, skeletal muscle, and fat

Inhibits hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues

Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels on membrane of beta cells to promote insulin secretion

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors, like empagliflozin, block sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the proximal tubule, preventing glucose reabsorption. This increases urinary glucose excretion, lowering blood sugar in type 2 diabetes. The mechanism is insulin-independent, reducing hyperglycemia and promoting weight loss, making this statement accurate for their primary action.

Choice B reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors do not interact with transcription factors to improve insulin sensitivity. This describes metformin’s action via AMPK activation in liver and muscle. SGLT-2 inhibitors act renally, not on transcription factors, making this statement inaccurate as it misattributes their mechanism to a different drug class.

Choice C reason: Inhibiting hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity is metformin’s mechanism, not SGLT-2 inhibitors. SGLT-2 inhibitors work renally to excrete glucose, not by altering hepatic gluconeogenesis or peripheral insulin sensitivity. This statement is inaccurate, as it describes a different antidiabetic drug’s action.

Choice D reason: Blocking ATP-sensitive K+ channels is the mechanism of sulfonylureas, like glipizide, which stimulate insulin secretion from beta cells. SGLT-2 inhibitors act on renal glucose reabsorption, not beta cell channels. This statement is inaccurate, as it incorrectly assigns a sulfonylurea mechanism to SGLT-2 inhibitors.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, peaks 1-2 hours after administration (around 8:30-9:30 am for a 7:30 am dose). This peak coincides with maximum glucose-lowering effect, increasing hypoglycemia risk, especially if breakfast is inadequate or delayed. This time is the most likely for low blood sugar due to insulin’s pharmacodynamics.

Choice B reason: At 7:45 am, insulin lispro is just beginning to act (onset 15-30 minutes), and breakfast is likely being consumed, providing glucose to counter insulin’s effect. Hypoglycemia risk is lower than at peak action (1-2 hours), making this time less critical for hypoglycemia monitoring.

Choice C reason: By 12:30 pm, insulin lispro’s effect (duration 3-5 hours) is waning, and glucose from breakfast is metabolized. Hypoglycemia risk is lower unless additional insulin or activity occurs. This time is less likely for hypoglycemia compared to the peak action period around 8:30 am.

Choice D reason: Tomorrow at 6:30 am is beyond insulin lispro’s duration of action (3-5 hours). Hypoglycemia risk from the 7:30 am dose is negligible 23 hours later, as insulin is cleared. This time is irrelevant to the dose’s effect, making it the least likely for hypoglycemia.

A. Melena B. Heartburn C. Hematemesis D. Dysphagia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Melena, dark tarry stools from digested blood, indicates upper gastrointestinal bleeding, not typically GERD. GERD involves acid reflux causing esophageal irritation, not bleeding severe enough for melena. This statement is inaccurate, as melena is more associated with ulcers or varices, not reflux disease.

Choice B reason: Heartburn, a burning sensation in the chest, is a hallmark of GERD, caused by stomach acid refluxing into the esophagus, irritating the mucosa. It results from lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction, allowing acid backflow. This statement is accurate, as heartburn is a primary diagnostic symptom of GERD.

Choice C reason: Hematemesis, vomiting blood, is not a common GERD symptom but indicates severe conditions like esophageal varices or ulcers. While chronic GERD may lead to esophagitis, bleeding is rare. This statement is inaccurate, as hematemesis is not a characteristic feature of typical GERD presentations.

Choice D reason: Dysphagia, difficulty swallowing, can occur in severe GERD due to esophageal strictures or motility issues but is not a primary characteristic. Heartburn is more common and diagnostic. This statement is less accurate, as dysphagia is a complication, not a defining feature of GERD.

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What is the mechanism of action of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors (SGLT-2 inhibitors)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client’s blood glucose level is 220 mg/dL. The client is about to eat breakfast. The prescribed sliding scale indicates that 4 units of insulin lispro (Humalog) be given subcutaneously at 7:30 am. At what time is the client most at risk for hypoglycemia?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). Which word or statement is an accurate characteristic of GERD?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The client’s blood sugar this morning is 50 mg/dL. The client states they are cold, sweating, and clammy. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

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A febrile client admitted for pneumonia becomes diaphoretic and flushed. What pathophysiological process does the nurse suspect?

A client with type 2 diabetes who has been prescribed metformin. The client asks the nurse how the medication will affect their kidneys. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?

A nurse is preparing to discharge an obese client after abdominal surgery. Which instruction should the nurse prioritize to promote wound healing and prevent complications?

Which statement about monoamine oxidase inhibitors is inaccurate?

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