What is the primary therapeutic action of SGLT-2 inhibitors?
They promoting renal excretion of sodium and glucose.
They reduce hospitalizations by decreasing blood glucose levels through increasing insulin through the pancreas.
They increase the cardiac output by strengthening heart contractions.
They decrease blood pressure by vasodilating peripheral vessels.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. They promoting renal excretion of sodium and glucose: SGLT-2 inhibitors block the sodium-glucose co-transporter in the proximal renal tubules, reducing glucose reabsorption and increasing urinary glucose excretion. This leads to lower blood glucose levels and mild natriuresis, which also contributes to blood pressure reduction.
B. They reduce hospitalizations by decreasing blood glucose levels through increasing insulin through the pancreas: SGLT-2 inhibitors do not act on the pancreas or increase insulin secretion. Their glucose-lowering effect comes from preventing renal reabsorption of glucose rather than stimulating insulin production.
C. They increase the cardiac output by strengthening heart contractions: Although SGLT-2 inhibitors have shown cardiovascular benefits, they do so through mechanisms such as osmotic diuresis and reduced cardiac workload, not by increasing cardiac output directly.
D. They decrease blood pressure by vasodilating peripheral vessels: While SGLT-2 inhibitors may lower blood pressure modestly, the mechanism is not through vasodilation. Instead, it is primarily related to osmotic diuresis and sodium loss, which reduce intravascular volume.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Peripheral arterial disease is characterized by diminished pulses, cool extremities, and intermittent claudication, which does not match the client’s findings.
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is supported by throbbing pain, swelling, discoloration, and warmth in the right calf, all classic signs of a venous clot.
C. Cellulitis presents with localized infection, redness, warmth, and tenderness, but does not explain shortness of breath.
D. Pulmonary embolism (PE) is suggested by the client’s shortness of breath in the context of DVT, indicating possible clot migration to the lungs.
E. Popliteal venous aneurysm is a rare vascular condition and is not consistent with this presentation.
F. Vasculitis involves systemic vessel inflammation, which is not indicated in this case.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, provides immediate anticoagulation by inhibiting factor Xa. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K–dependent clotting factors but takes 3–5 days to reach therapeutic effect, so both drugs are overlapped until warfarin is effective.
B. Neither enoxaparin nor warfarin dissolves an existing clot; instead, they prevent clot propagation and new clot formation. Clot resolution occurs naturally through the body’s fibrinolytic system.
C. The dual therapy is not used because of clot location risk, but rather because of the pharmacokinetics of the two medications. The overlap ensures continuous anticoagulation until warfarin becomes therapeutic.
D. Using two anticoagulants together does not provide additive long-term protection. The overlap is temporary, serving to maintain anticoagulation until warfarin reaches therapeutic levels, after which enoxaparin is discontinued.
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