When performing a focused gastrointestinal system assessment, the practical nurse (PN) asks a male client when his last bowel movement occurred. The client answers, "Three days ago." Which action should the PN implement first?
Administer a prescribed PRN stool softener
Determine the client's usual bowel patern
Encourage the client to ambulate more frequently
Recommend increasing high-fiber foods daily
The Correct Answer is B
- A bowel patern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel patern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
- A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patern. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities³.
- When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel patern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may affect the client's bowel function.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because administering a stool softener without assessing the client's bowel patern may not be appropriate or effective.
Option C is incorrect because encouraging ambulation may help to stimulate bowel activity, but it is not the first action to take.
Option D is incorrect because recommending dietary changes may be helpful for preventing or treating constipation, but it is not the first action to take.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs. Rationale: While promoting safe sex practices is essential in preventing STIs, this response is not directly addressing the client's situation. The client already reports having unprotected sex, so this choice does not provide relevant information or address the potential consequences.
Choice B rationale:
Explain that reinfections occur from sex with untreated partners. Rationale: This is the correct response. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can be treated with antibiotics, but reinfections can occur if sexual partners are not treated. This response provides essential information about the potential consequences of unprotected sex with untreated partners.
Choice C rationale:
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse. Rationale: While this statement is accurate in a general sense, it does not specifically address the client's situation or the risks associated with syphilis. It lacks the focus needed to educate the client effectively about their current situation.
Choice D rationale:
Provide counseling that most contraceptives protect against infection. Rationale: This response is inaccurate. Contraceptives primarily aim to prevent pregnancy, not protect against STIs. Therefore, it does not address the client's concern or provide relevant information about syphilis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Step 1 is to convert the child’s weight from pounds to kilograms since the dosage is prescribed in mg/kg. We know that 1 kg is approximately 2.2 lbs. So, the child’s weight in kg is 55 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 25 kg (rounded to the nearest whole number for simplicity).
Step 2 is to calculate the total daily dosage. The prescription is for 150 mg/kg/day. So, the total daily dosage is 150 mg/kg/day × 25 kg = 3750 mg/day.
So, the correct answer is, after analysing all choices, the nurse should administer 3750 mg of cefotaxime each day.
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