When performing a focused gastrointestinal system assessment, the practical nurse (PN) asks a male client when his last bowel movement occurred. The client answers, "Three days ago." Which action should the PN implement first?
Administer a prescribed PRN stool softener
Determine the client's usual bowel patern
Encourage the client to ambulate more frequently
Recommend increasing high-fiber foods daily
The Correct Answer is B
- A bowel patern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel patern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
- A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patern. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities³.
- When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel patern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may affect the client's bowel function.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because administering a stool softener without assessing the client's bowel patern may not be appropriate or effective.
Option C is incorrect because encouraging ambulation may help to stimulate bowel activity, but it is not the first action to take.
Option D is incorrect because recommending dietary changes may be helpful for preventing or treating constipation, but it is not the first action to take.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tetracycline antibiotics can form insoluble complexes with calcium, reducing their absorption when taken together. Therefore, advising the client to continue taking calcium supplements with food while on tetracycline therapy is not recommended as it may decrease the effectiveness of the antibiotic.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should advise the client to avoid taking calcium supplements while on tetracycline therapy. Calcium-containing products (such as supplements, dairy products, and antacids) should be taken at least 2 hours before or after tetracycline administration to minimize the interference with drug absorption.
Choice C rationale:
Taking calcium supplements with tetracycline, even with plenty of water, can still lead to reduced drug absorption due to the formation of insoluble complexes. Therefore, this advice is not appropriate.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should recommend that the client take calcium supplements at least 2 hours before or after tetracycline. This approach ensures that the client receives the full therapeutic benefit of the antibiotic while still meeting their calcium needs separately.
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