When teaching a group of new mental health nurses about the major difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorders, which would be most appropriate to include?
The mania symptoms of bipolar II disorder have less effect on functioning.
Bipolar II is more often recognized than bipolar I.
Unlike bipolar II, bipolar I disorder involves no symptoms of mania, but only depression.
Both disorders are the same, except the risk for suicide is greater with bipolar I disorder.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Bipolar II involves hypomania, which is less severe than bipolar I’s mania, causing milder dopamine-driven limbic hyperactivity. Hypomania impairs functioning less, as it lacks psychosis and severe impulsivity, allowing better prefrontal cortex regulation compared to bipolar I’s intense manic episodes.
Choice B reason: Bipolar II is less often recognized than bipolar I due to hypomania’s subtlety, often mistaken for normal mood. Bipolar I’s severe mania, driven by dopamine excess, is more noticeable, leading to earlier diagnosis, making this statement factually incorrect.
Choice C reason: Bipolar I includes severe mania, not just depression, driven by dopamine and norepinephrine surges in the limbic system. Bipolar II involves hypomania and depression, so this statement inaccurately describes bipolar I’s clinical features, which include prominent manic episodes.
Choice D reason: Bipolar I and II differ in mania severity, not just suicide risk. Bipolar I’s severe mania increases impulsivity via dopamine dysregulation, but both have suicide risks. This statement oversimplifies the disorders’ neurochemical and clinical distinctions, making it incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hospice requires a prognosis of 6 months or less. COPD with a 2-year life expectancy does not meet this, as the chronic disease allows longer-term management, not immediate palliative care for end-stage illness.
Choice B reason: Type 1 diabetes and substance abuse are not terminal conditions meeting hospice criteria (6 months or less prognosis). These require chronic management, not end-of-life care, as they lack imminent mortality despite complications.
Choice C reason: Multiple sclerosis with depression and pain is chronic, not terminal within 6 months, excluding hospice eligibility. Symptom management, not end-of-life care, is appropriate, as the prognosis does not indicate imminent death.
Choice D reason: Glioblastoma with an 8-10 week prognosis meets hospice criteria (6 months or less). Rapid tumor progression causes neurological decline, requiring palliative care to manage symptoms and support end-of-life needs, aligning with hospice goals.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Availability and lethality of suicide means are critical, as they determine immediate risk. Serotonin deficits and amygdala-driven impulsivity heighten the likelihood of acting on accessible, lethal methods, making this the priority to prevent fatal outcomes in suicidal patients.
Choice B reason: Insight into suicidal motivation is important but secondary to immediate risk. Serotonin dysregulation drives impulsivity, and without addressing access to lethal means, insight alone cannot prevent action, making it less urgent in acute suicide assessment.
Choice C reason: Abuse history increases suicide risk via trauma-related amygdala hyperactivity but is not the priority. Immediate access to lethal means poses a greater acute risk, as serotonin deficits drive impulsivity, necessitating focus on preventing action first.
Choice D reason: Social support is a protective factor but secondary to immediate risk. Serotonin-driven impulsivity and amygdala hyperactivity make access to lethal means the priority, as support cannot prevent action if means are readily available.
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