The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T1. The alarm on the monitor sounds because the patient's blood pressure is 86/50 and the heart rate is 44. The nurse's priority action would be to:

assess the patient's neurological status and repeat vital signs

ask the patient care tech to check on the patient.

place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position.

administer intravenous (tv) fluids to increase cardiac output.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Assess the patient's neurological status and repeat vital signs:
In patients with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T1, autonomic dysreflexia or neurogenic shock can lead to unstable vital signs, including hypotension and bradycardia. The most immediate concern in this scenario is to determine if the patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, which can result from the loss of sympathetic nervous system function below the level of the injury. By assessing the patient’s neurological status (such as checking for changes in motor function, sensation, or level of consciousness) and repeating vital signs, the nurse can gather the necessary data to make informed decisions about further interventions.

B) Ask the patient care tech to check on the patient:
While the patient care tech can assist with tasks, this is not the priority action. The nurse must immediately assess the patient's condition, particularly given the vital sign changes and the potential for a life-threatening situation like neurogenic shock. The nurse's clinical judgment and expertise are required to evaluate the situation appropriately.

C) Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position:
Placing the patient in reverse Trendelenburg may help with hypotension in certain situations, but it is not the priority intervention for someone with a spinal cord injury at T1. In cases of neurogenic shock or autonomic dysreflexia, positioning alone will not correct the underlying issue.

D) Administer intravenous (IV) fluids to increase cardiac output:
While IV fluids may be necessary to treat hypotension in some situations, the nurse must first assess the patient’s neurological status and repeat vital signs to determine the cause of the hypotension and bradycardia. Administering IV fluids without understanding the underlying cause could be inappropriate or even harmful, particularly if the low blood pressure is related to neurogenic shock, which requires careful management.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Intestines:
While abdominal trauma can affect the intestines, Kehr's sign, Cullen's sign, and Gray Turner's sign are more commonly associated with damage to the spleen rather than the intestines. Kehr's sign, in particular, is a hallmark of splenic injury, with pain referred to the left shoulder due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood in the peritoneum.

B) Liver:
Liver injuries often present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. While liver injuries can cause internal bleeding, Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs are more closely associated with retroperitoneal bleeding from the spleen rather than liver injuries. Kehr's sign, which is left-sided shoulder pain, would not typically indicate a liver injury.

C) Spleen:
The spleen is the most likely abdominal organ affected in this case due to the left-sided rib fractures. When the spleen is injured (often as a result of blunt trauma), it can cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage. This bleeding can irritate the diaphragm, leading to Kehr's sign, which presents as left shoulder pain. Additionally, Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising) and Gray Turner's sign (flank bruising) are indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can occur with splenic rupture or laceration.

D) Stomach:
While stomach injuries can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, they are less likely to cause the signs and symptoms seen in this patient (Kehr's, Cullen's, and Gray Turner's signs). Stomach trauma typically leads to pain and potential perforation, but it doesn't often cause the peritoneal bleeding patterns seen with splenic injuries.

A. take this medication as needed for pain" B. stop the medication if experience dry mouth. C. taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks. D. feel an increase in energy with this medication.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Take this medication as needed for pain:
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant typically prescribed for managing spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), rather than for pain. It should be taken as prescribed, typically on a scheduled basis rather than on an as-needed basis for pain. Misunderstanding this could lead to improper use of the medication and ineffective symptom management.

B) Stop the medication if I experience dry mouth:
Dry mouth is a potential side effect of baclofen, but it should not be the reason to stop the medication abruptly. Stopping baclofen suddenly can result in withdrawal symptoms and could potentially worsen spasticity. If dry mouth or other side effects are bothersome, the client should consult the healthcare provider for management options rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly.

C) Taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks:
This statement demonstrates a correct understanding of the proper way to discontinue baclofen. Baclofen should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms, which can include increased spasticity, hallucinations, or seizures. A gradual tapering of the dose over a period of 1 to 2 weeks is recommended to avoid withdrawal. This is the most appropriate and safe response.

D) Feel an increase in energy with this medication:
Baclofen is not a medication designed to increase energy. Its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasticity, not to provide a stimulant effect. If the client expects an increase in energy, this could indicate a misunderstanding of the medication's effects. Baclofen's focus is on reducing spasticity and muscle tightness, not improving energy levels.

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The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T1. The alarm on the monitor sounds because the patient's blood pressure is 86/50 and the heart rate is 44. The nurse's priority action would be to:

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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