Which action is safest for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to the certified nursing assistant (CNA)?

Review dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH) choices in a client with primary HTN

With one other CNA logroll a client who has had a bicycle accident

Obtain a weight on a newly admitted client with diabetes

Assist a client to the bathroom 1 hour after a lumbar puncture

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Review dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH) choices in a client with primary HTN
Dietary education requires nursing judgment and assessment, which are outside the CNA’s scope of practice. This should be done by the RN or a dietitian.

B. With one other CNA, logroll a client who has had a bicycle accident
Logrolling is required in patients with spinal precautions, and an RN or physical therapist should oversee or perform the procedure to ensure proper spinal alignment.

C. Obtain a weight on a newly admitted client with diabetes
Measuring weight is within a CNA’s scope of practice, and it does not require clinical judgment. The CNA can obtain the weight and report findings to the RN.

D. Assist a client to the bathroom 1 hour after a lumbar puncture
A client who has undergone a lumbar puncture is at risk for post-procedure headaches and hypotension due to cerebrospinal fluid loss. The RN should assess the client first before allowing ambulation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. White Blood Cell decrease
Platelet transfusions do not affect WBC levels. WBCs may change in response to infection or inflammation, but this is not an indicator of successful platelet transfusion.

B. Platelets increase
The primary goal of platelet transfusion is to increase platelet count to reduce bleeding risk in thrombocytopenia.

C. Hemoglobin increase
Hemoglobin levels increase after red blood cell (RBC) transfusions, not platelet transfusions.

D. PT and INR normalize
PT/INR measures clotting function, which is affected by clotting factors, not platelets. Platelet transfusions do not directly correct prolonged PT/INR.

A. diphenhydramine 50mg PO. B. famotidine 40mg PO. C. epinephrine 1mg IM. D. a fluid bolus of normal saline.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg PO
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) treats mild allergic reactions but is not sufficient for anaphylaxis. The presence of SOB and angioedema suggests airway compromise, requiring epinephrine.

B. Famotidine 40 mg PO
Famotidine (H2 blocker) can help with allergic reactions but is not the priority in an emergency.

C. Epinephrine 1 mg IM
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It reverses airway swelling, hypotension, and bronchoconstriction. The standard IM dose is 0.3-0.5 mg, not 1 mg, but epinephrine remains the priority drug.

D. A fluid bolus of normal saline
IV fluids help treat hypotension in anaphylaxis, but epinephrine is the priority intervention.

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Which action is safest for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to the certified nursing assistant (CNA)?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client who has completed a blood product transfusion for the treatment of thrombocytopenia. How would the nurse know that treatment has been successful?

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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