Which adverse effect unique to vancomycin is caused by histamine release?
Discoloration of body fluids
Ototoxicity
Red-man syndrome
Nephrotoxicity
The Correct Answer is C
A. Discoloration of body fluids:
Vancomycin can cause discoloration of body fluids, particularly urine, resulting in a brownish discoloration. However, this is not caused by histamine release.
B. Ototoxicity:
Ototoxicity refers to damage to the inner ear structures leading to hearing loss or balance problems. While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity, it is not specifically associated with histamine release.
C. Red-man syndrome
Red-man syndrome, also known as red-neck syndrome or red-person syndrome, is a hypersensitivity reaction characterized by flushing of the skin, particularly the upper body and face, resembling a "red man." This reaction is typically associated with the rapid infusion of vancomycin and is caused by the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. It is not an allergic reaction but rather a non-immunologic response to vancomycin.
D. Nephrotoxicity:
Nephrotoxicity refers to kidney damage caused by certain medications or toxins. While vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity, it is not specifically associated with histamine release.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Kanamycin (Kantrex):
Kanamycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, but it is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for MRSA infections. Aminoglycosides are not typically preferred for treating MRSA because they are not as effective against these resistant bacteria compared to other agents like vancomycin.
B. Vancomycin:
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic and is considered the drug of choice for the treatment of MRSA infections, including serious bloodstream infections, pneumonia, and skin and soft tissue infections. It works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis in bacteria, including MRSA.
C. Streptomycin:
Streptomycin is another aminoglycoside antibiotic, similar to kanamycin. Like kanamycin, streptomycin is not typically used as a first-line treatment for MRSA infections because it is less effective against resistant strains compared to other agents like vancomycin.
D. Penicillin:
Penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective against MRSA because MRSA is resistant to these antibiotics, including methicillin. Therefore, penicillin would not be an appropriate choice for treating MRSA infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Refers to an infection that is resistant to conventional antibiotics:
This statement is partially correct. Acquired resistance does indeed refer to bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics, but it is not specific to conventional antibiotics. Bacteria can develop resistance to various types of antibiotics, including conventional antibiotics and newer antimicrobial agents.
B. Superinfection that has significant antifungal resistance:
This statement is incorrect. Acquired resistance specifically pertains to bacteria and their ability to resist antibiotics. It does not involve antifungal resistance or superinfections.
C. Refers to a term used for antibiotic coverage:
This statement is incorrect. Acquired resistance is not a term used to describe antibiotic coverage. It describes the phenomenon of bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
D. There is no such phenomenon of acquired resistance:
This statement is incorrect. Acquired resistance is a well-documented phenomenon in microbiology and is a significant challenge in the treatment of bacterial infections. Ignoring or denying the existence of acquired resistance would overlook a critical aspect of antibiotic stewardship and management of bacterial infections.
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