Which clinical sign is not included in the symptoms of preeclampsia?
Edema.
Glycosuria.
Proteinuria.
Hypertension.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Edema, particularly peripheral edema, is a common clinical sign of preeclampsia. It results from fluid shifts due to increased vascular permeability and decreased plasma protein levels associated with the disease process.
Choice B rationale
Glycosuria, the presence of glucose in the urine, is not typically a symptom of preeclampsia. It is more commonly associated with gestational diabetes, a separate condition of pregnancy characterized by impaired glucose tolerance.
Choice C rationale
Proteinuria, the presence of significant amounts of protein in the urine (typically ≥300 mg in a 24-hour urine collection), is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia. It reflects glomerular endothelial damage and increased permeability.
Choice D rationale
Hypertension, defined as a blood pressure of ≥140/90 mmHg on two separate occasions at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks of gestation, is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. It results from systemic vasoconstriction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The 1-hour glucose tolerance test is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation to screen for gestational diabetes. This screening involves measuring the client's blood glucose level one hour after consuming a 50-gram glucose load. A normal result is generally considered to be a blood glucose level below 130-140 mg/dL.
Choice B rationale
Rubella titer is usually assessed early in pregnancy, ideally during the first prenatal visit, to determine the woman's immunity to rubella. If the woman is not immune, vaccination is typically offered postpartum to prevent infection in subsequent pregnancies, as rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious congenital defects.
Choice C rationale
Sexually transmitted disease testing is ideally conducted at the initial prenatal visit to identify and treat any infections early in pregnancy, reducing the risk of transmission to the fetus and other complications. While repeat testing may be indicated based on risk factors, it is not a routine test specifically scheduled for the 24-week appointment for all clients.
Choice D rationale
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is typically performed later in pregnancy, usually between 35 and 37 weeks of gestation, to determine if the woman is colonized with GBS. This is important for intrapartum management to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Thoroughly cooking meat to an internal temperature of 160°F (71°C) kills the Toxoplasma gondii parasite, thus preventing transmission. This is a recommended measure to prevent toxoplasmosis during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Drinking unpasteurized milk poses a risk of exposure to various pathogens, including Toxoplasma gondii, as pasteurization is a process that kills harmful microorganisms. Pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized dairy products to reduce the risk of infection. This statement indicates a need for further instruction as it suggests an unsafe practice.
Choice C rationale
Cat feces can contain oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii. Avoiding contact with materials potentially contaminated with cat feces, such as litter boxes or garden soil, is a crucial measure to prevent toxoplasmosis.
Choice D rationale
Raw meat can be contaminated with Toxoplasma gondii. Avoiding touching mucous membranes of the mouth or eyes while handling raw meat and washing hands thoroughly afterwards prevents the parasite from entering the body. This is a recommended preventive measure.
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