Which medication order will provide the most consistent control of the patient's chronic pain?
Hydromorphone 0.5 mg IV
Fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg
Fentanyl oral lozenge 200 mcg
Morphine sulfate liquid 10 mg
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Hydromorphone 0.5 mg IV is not the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can relieve severe pain, but it has a short duration of action. It is given intravenously, which means it has a rapid onset and peak, but also a rapid decline and elimination. The patient may experience fluctuations in pain relief and need frequent doses.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg is the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that can relieve severe pain, but it has a long duration of action. It is given transdermally, which means it is absorbed through the skin and released slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The patient may experience continuous and stable pain relief and need less frequent doses.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Fentanyl oral lozenge 200 mcg is not the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that can relieve severe pain, but it has a short duration of action. It is given orally, which means it has to pass through the digestive system and the liver before reaching the bloodstream. The patient may experience delayed and variable pain relief and need frequent doses.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Morphine sulfate liquid 10 mg is not the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Morphine is a moderate opioid analgesic that can relieve moderate to severe pain, but it has a short duration of action. It is given orally, which means it has to pass through the digestive system and the liver before reaching the bloodstream. The patient may experience delayed and variable pain relief and need frequent doses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Presbyopia is not a term for age-related hearing loss. Presbyopia is a term for age-related vision loss. Presbyopia is a condition where the lens of the eye becomes less flexible and less able to focus on near objects. It can cause difficulty in reading, writing, or doing other close-up tasks.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Presbycusis is a term for age-related hearing loss. Presbycusis is a condition where the inner ear or the auditory nerve degenerates over time. It can cause difficulty in hearing high-pitched sounds, speech, or background noise. It can also affect the balance and the quality of life.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Meniere’s disease is not a term for age-related hearing loss. Meniere’s disease is a term for a disorder of the inner ear that causes episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and ear fullness. It can affect people of any age, but it is more common in middle-aged adults. It can be triggered by stress, infection, or allergy.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Tinnitus is not a term for age-related hearing loss. Tinnitus is a term for a ringing, buzzing, or other sound in the ears or head that is not caused by an external source. It can affect people of any age, but it is more common in older adults. It can be caused by various factors, such as noise exposure, ear infection, medication, or hearing loss.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Tramadol is not a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. Tramadol is an opioid analgesic medication that works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It can relieve moderate to severe pain, but it does not have any anti-inflammatory effect.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. Aspirin is a salicylate medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, which is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are chemical messengers that mediate inflammation, pain, and fever. Aspirin can reduce inflammation, pain, and fever, as well as prevent blood clots and protect the heart.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Acetaminophen is not a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. Acetaminophen is a para-aminophenol medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase in the central nervous system, but not in the peripheral tissues. It can reduce pain and fever, but it does not have any anti-inflammatory effect.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, which is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are chemical messengers that mediate inflammation, pain, and fever. Ibuprofen can reduce inflammation, pain, and fever, as well as treat arthritis and menstrual cramps.
Choice E reason: This is incorrect. Codeine is not a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. Codeine is an opioid analgesic medication that works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It can relieve mild to moderate pain, but it does not have any anti-inflammatory effect.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
