Which medication order will provide the most consistent control of the patient's chronic pain?
Hydromorphone 0.5 mg IV
Fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg
Fentanyl oral lozenge 200 mcg
Morphine sulfate liquid 10 mg
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Hydromorphone 0.5 mg IV is not the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can relieve severe pain, but it has a short duration of action. It is given intravenously, which means it has a rapid onset and peak, but also a rapid decline and elimination. The patient may experience fluctuations in pain relief and need frequent doses.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg is the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that can relieve severe pain, but it has a long duration of action. It is given transdermally, which means it is absorbed through the skin and released slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The patient may experience continuous and stable pain relief and need less frequent doses.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Fentanyl oral lozenge 200 mcg is not the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that can relieve severe pain, but it has a short duration of action. It is given orally, which means it has to pass through the digestive system and the liver before reaching the bloodstream. The patient may experience delayed and variable pain relief and need frequent doses.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Morphine sulfate liquid 10 mg is not the best option for providing consistent control of the patient's chronic pain. Morphine is a moderate opioid analgesic that can relieve moderate to severe pain, but it has a short duration of action. It is given orally, which means it has to pass through the digestive system and the liver before reaching the bloodstream. The patient may experience delayed and variable pain relief and need frequent doses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Reporting the findings to the health care provider immediately is an important step, but not the priority action of the nurse. The nurse should first assess the patient for orthostatic hypotension, which is a common cause of sudden blood pressure drop.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Checking the patient’s apical rate to check for a pulse deficit is a relevant step, but not the priority action of the nurse. A pulse deficit is the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. The nurse should first check the patient for orthostatic hypotension, which is a condition where the blood pressure drops when the patient changes position, causing dizziness and fainting.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Immediately checking the patient for orthostatic hypotension is the priority action of the nurse. Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where the blood pressure drops when the patient changes position, causing dizziness and fainting. It can be caused by dehydration, medications, blood loss, or autonomic nervous system disorders. The nurse should measure the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate while lying down, sitting, and standing, and observe for any signs of hypoperfusion, such as pallor, sweating, or confusion.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Elevating the head of the patient’s bed to at least 45 degrees is a helpful step, but not the priority action of the nurse. Elevating the head of the bed can improve the patient’s breathing and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it can also worsen the orthostatic hypotension by lowering the blood pressure further. The nurse should first check the patient for orthostatic hypotension and then adjust the bed position accordingly.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct choice because melatonin is the safest sleep aid for the elderly patient with insomnia. Melatonin is a natural hormone that regulates the sleep-wake cycle. It has few side effects and interactions, and does not cause dependence or withdrawal. Melatonin can improve the quality and duration of sleep, and reduce the time to fall asleep.
Choice B reason: This is an incorrect choice because temazepam is not the safest sleep aid for the elderly patient with insomnia. Temazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the activity of GABA, a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity. It has many side effects and interactions, and can cause dependence, tolerance, or withdrawal. Temazepam can also impair cognitive and motor functions, and increase the risk of falls, fractures, and delirium.
Choice C reason: This is an incorrect choice because trazodone is not the safest sleep aid for the elderly patient with insomnia. Trazodone is an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that regulates mood and sleep. It has many side effects and interactions, and can cause orthostatic hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, priapism, or serotonin syndrome. Trazodone can also impair cognitive and motor functions, and increase the risk of falls, fractures, and delirium.
Choice D reason: This is an incorrect choice because triazolam is not the safest sleep aid for the elderly patient with insomnia. Triazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the activity of GABA, a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity. It has many side effects and interactions, and can cause dependence, tolerance, or withdrawal. Triazolam can also impair cognitive and motor functions, and increase the risk of falls, fractures, and delirium.
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