Which of the following antiviral medications prevents viral fusion with host cell membrane?

Maraviroc

Abacavir

Darunavir

Fosamprenavir.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Maraviroc is a CCR5 coreceptor antagonist that blocks the receptor site the HIV virus needs to interact with in order to enter the cell. It prevents viral fusion with host cell membrane by binding to the CCR5 receptor on CD4+ T cells and macrophages.

Choice B is wrong because Abacavir is wrong because it is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which converts viral RNA into DNA.

It does not prevent viral fusion with host cell membrane.

Choice C is wrong because Darunavir is wrong because it is a protease inhibitor (PI) that inhibits the enzyme protease, which cleaves viral proteins into functional units.

It does not prevent viral fusion with host cell membrane.

Choice D is wrong because Fosamprenavir is wrong because it is also a protease inhibitor (PI) that inhibits the enzyme protease.

It does not prevent viral fusion with host cell membrane.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

These are signs ofototoxicity, a potentially serious adverse reaction to vancomycin (Vancocin) and other aminoglycosides.Ototoxicity can damage the inner ear and cause permanent hearing loss or balance problems.

Choice A is wrong because redness and itching at the infusion site are not specific to vancomycin (Vancocin) and could indicate a local irritation or an allergic reaction to any drug.

Choice B is wrong because flushing, rash, and pruritus on the face and upper torso are symptoms ofred man syndrome, a common but not serious side effect of vancomycin (Vancocin) that occurs due to rapid infusion and histamine release.Red man syndrome can be prevented by infusing the drug over at least 1 hour.

Choice C is wrong because nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps are not specific to vancomycin (Vancocin) and could be caused by many factors, such as infection, food poisoning, or other drugs.

Normal ranges for vancomycin (Vancocin) trough levels are 10 to 20 mcg/mL for most infections and 15 to 20 mcg/mL for serious infections such as osteomyelitis, endocarditis, or meningitis.Levels above 20 mcg/mL increase the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.

Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient’s trough levels regularly and report any abnormal findings to the prescriber.

A. Ciprofloxacin B. Imipenem C. Penicillin V D. Metronidazole E. Gentamicin.

Correct Answer is E

Explanation

Gentamicin is an example of a concentration-dependent antimicrobial, which means that it achieves increasing bacterial kill with increasing levels of drug.The peak concentration and the area under the concentration curve (AUC) determine the efficacy of these antibiotics.Other examples of concentration-dependent antimicrobials include fluoroquinolones, daptomycin, aminoglycosides, and amphotericin

Choice A is wrong because ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, which is also a concentration-dependent antimicrobial.

Choice B is wrong because imipenem is a carbapenem, which is a type of beta-lactam antibiotic.Beta-lactams are time-dependent antimicrobials, which means that their bactericidal activity depends on the duration of the effective concentration.

Choice C is wrong because penicillin V is another type of beta-lactam antibiotic, which is also a time-dependent antimicrobial.

Choice D is wrong because metronidazole is a bactericidal agent that has both time- and concentration-dependent properties.However, it is not classified as a concentration-dependent antimicrobial according to the AMEG categorization of antibiotics in the European Union.

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Which of the following antiviral medications prevents viral fusion with host cell membrane?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving vancomycin (Vancocin) for treatment of an infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which assessment finding would indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction to this drug?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which antibiotics are classified as concentration-dependent antimicrobials?

Correct Answer is E

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has a fungal infection and is receiving itraconazole therapy. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of this medication?

A nurse is administering tetracycline, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, to a patient who has acne vulgaris. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving gentamicin IV for treatment of endocarditis caused by gram-negative bacteria. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely during gentamicin therapy?

A patient is receiving cefazolin, a first-generation cephalosporin, for a surgical prophylaxis. The nurse should assess the patient for which of the following possible allergic reactions? (Select all that apply.)

Which statement is true regarding narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed tetracycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, for acne vulgaris. Which of these instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is prescribed rifampin, an antitubercular drug. The nurse should instruct the client about which potential side effect of rifampin?

A nurse is administering penicillin to a client who has streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect of penicillin therapy?