Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse that a client's IV has infiltrated? (Select All That Apply)

Reddish streak proximal to the insertion site

Skin is pale and taut

The vein is firm and cord-like

IV fluid leaking from insertion site

Warmth at the insertion site

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,D,E

A. Reddish streak proximal to the insertion site: This indicates phlebitis, not infiltration.
B. Skin is pale and taut: This is a sign of infiltration as fluid accumulates in the tissue around the IV site.
C. The vein is firm and cord-like: This is indicative of phlebitis or thrombophlebitis, not infiltration.
D. IV fluid leaking from insertion site: This is a clear sign of infiltration, where fluid leaks out of the vein into surrounding tissue.
E. Warmth at the insertion site: This can be a sign of infiltration or inflammation, depending on the context.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Warfarin (Coumadin): This is the correct choice. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. The surgeon needs to be notified to consider holding the medication and to adjust the surgical plan if necessary.
B. Gabapentin (Neurontin): While important for pain management, it does not significantly impact surgical procedures or bleeding risk.
C. Xanax (Alprazolam): This medication is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, which might be relevant for preoperative anxiety but does not require immediate notification of the surgeon.
D. Atenolol (Tenormin): This beta-blocker is used for hypertension and heart conditions but does not require immediate notification of the surgeon unless there are specific cardiac concerns related to surgery.

A. Decrease the TPN rate to 60 ml/hr B. Replace TPN infusion with an intravenous dextrose solution C. Begin infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 30 ml/hr D. Discontinue TPN infusion E. Discontinue TPN infusion

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Decrease the TPN rate to 60 ml/hr: Gradually decreasing the TPN rate is a common practice, but it is typically done in conjunction with transitioning to another form of nutrition, not as a standalone order.
B. Replace TPN infusion with an intravenous dextrose solution: This is the correct choice. When weaning off TPN, it is important to prevent hypoglycemia by replacing the TPN with a dextrose solution to maintain blood glucose levels while transitioning to oral or enteral feeding.
C. Begin infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 30 ml/hr: While saline may be used for hydration, it does not address the need to manage blood glucose levels during the transition from TPN.
D. Discontinue TPN infusion: Discontinuing TPN abruptly can lead to complications such as hypoglycemia. It is important to gradually taper off TPN while replacing it with a dextrose solution.

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Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse that a client's IV has infiltrated? (Select All That Apply)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is taking a medication history of a client scheduled for surgery the next morning. Which medication requires the nurse to immediately notify the surgeon?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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