Which of the following best describes a general approach to trauma-informed care?
Due to the pervasiveness of trauma, clinicians must be aware of signs and symptoms of past and present trauma and do their best not to retraumatize clients.
Due to the pervasiveness of trauma, clinicians must not diagnose mental illness until trauma has been ruled out.
Trauma is widespread and must be assessed at each visit in order to determine an adverse childhood experience (ACE) score.
Trauma is widespread, and clinicians must assume everyone has had some form of trauma. Trauma contributes to dysfunctional behavior.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Trauma-informed care emphasizes recognizing the widespread impact of trauma and integrating this understanding into all aspects of care. Clinicians are trained to identify signs of trauma and avoid practices that may retraumatize clients. This approach fosters safety, trust, and empowerment.
Choice B reason: While trauma can influence mental health, delaying diagnosis until trauma is ruled out is not a standard practice. Trauma-informed care encourages comprehensive assessment but does not prohibit diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Although ACE scores are valuable tools, assessing trauma at every visit is not a universal requirement. Trauma-informed care is more about creating a safe environment and being responsive to trauma history when relevant.
Choice D reason: Assuming everyone has experienced trauma may lead to overgeneralization and bias. Trauma-informed care promotes sensitivity and awareness, not assumptions. It focuses on individualized care and avoids pathologizing clients based on presumed trauma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While rhabdomyolysis is a known rare adverse effect of atorvastatin, the risk increases significantly when atorvastatin interacts with other drugs that inhibit its metabolism. This answer is partially correct but does not explain the mechanism.
Choice B reason: Fluoxetine is not commonly associated with rhabdomyolysis as a direct side effect. Its role in this case is more likely due to drug-drug interaction rather than intrinsic toxicity.
Choice C reason: Fluoxetine is not a CYP450 3A4 inducer. This choice is incorrect because it misrepresents fluoxetine’s pharmacologic profile.
Choice D reason: Fluoxetine is a known inhibitor of CYP450 3A4. Atorvastatin is metabolized by this enzyme. Inhibition of CYP3A4 by fluoxetine can lead to increased plasma levels of atorvastatin, raising the risk of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis due to impaired clearance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The anal stage, occurring around ages 1 to 3, is associated with issues of control, orderliness, and autonomy. Fixation at this stage may result in traits such as obsessiveness or rigidity, not substance use or oral behaviors.
Choice B reason: The oral stage is the first stage in Freud’s psychosexual development (birth to 1 year). It centers on pleasure derived from oral activities such as sucking and eating. Fixation at this stage is linked to behaviors such as smoking, overeating, nail-biting, and alcohol use—making it the most appropriate answer.
Choice C reason: The phallic stage (ages 3 to 6) involves the Oedipus and Electra complexes and focuses on genital awareness. Fixation here may lead to issues with authority or sexual identity, not oral behaviors.
Choice D reason: The latent stage (ages 6 to puberty) is a period of relative calm in psychosexual development, where sexual impulses are repressed. Fixation here is not typically associated with substance use or oral behaviors.
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