Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)?
88-year-old person with only Type 2 diabetes.
72-year-old person with Type 2 diabetes & COPD.
33-year old person with Type 1 diabetes.
56-year old person with only Type 2 diabetes.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Older adults, particularly those with Type 2 diabetes, are at increased risk for HHS due to factors such as decreased renal function, polypharmacy, and potential for dehydration. This patient's age and diabetes type make them susceptible, but we need to compare them with other options.
B. COPD can lead to respiratory problems that may further complicate diabetes management. Additionally, older adults with chronic diseases often experience increased stress on their bodies, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of age, diabetes, and a chronic respiratory condition increases the risk.
C. While individuals with Type 1 diabetes can experience HHS, it is less common compared to those with Type 2 diabetes. This is primarily because people with Type 1 diabetes are more prone to ketoacidosis rather than HHS, especially if they are managing their insulin properly. Therefore, this individual is at a lower risk for HHS.
D. This patient has Type 2 diabetes but lacks the additional risk factors (like older age or chronic illness) that would significantly elevate their risk for HHS compared to the other options. While they could develop HHS, they are not at the highest risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While keeping the infant content is important for overall well-being, it's not the primary focus for eczema care.
B. Antibiotics are not typically used for eczema, as it's not a bacterial infection.
C. Eczema can cause the skin to become cracked and open, making it susceptible to infection. Therefore, preventing infection is a priority.
D. While good nutrition is important for overall health, it's not the primary concern in managing eczema
Correct Answer is ["4.5"]
Explanation
1 kilogram equals 2.2 pounds. The child weighs 20 pounds, which is approximately 9.09 kilograms (20 / 2.2).
The dosage prescribed is 10 mg/kg, so the child's dose is 90.9 mg (10 mg/kg * 9.09 kg).
Since the available medication concentration is 100 mg/5 mL, divide the dose needed by the concentration to find the volume to administer: 90.9 mg * (5 mL / 100 mg) equals 4.545 mL.
Rounded to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 mL of ibuprofen.
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