A newly diagnosed 8-year-old child with type I diabetes mellitus and his mother are receiving diabetes education prior to discharge. The physician has prescribed Glucagon for emergency use. The mother asks the purpose of this medication. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?
Glucagon prolongs the effect of insulin, allowing fewer injections.
Glucagon treats lipoatrophy from insulin injections.
Glucagon enhances the effect of insulin in case the blood sugar remains high one hour after injection.
Glucagon treats hypoglycemia resulting from insulin overdose.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Glucagon actually counteracts the effects of insulin by raising blood sugar levels.
B. Lipoatrophy is a condition where fat tissue breaks down at injection sites. Glucagon does not treat this condition.
C. This is also incorrect. Glucagon has the opposite effect of insulin, lowering blood sugar levels.
D. Glucagon is a hormone that stimulates the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream, making it effective in treating severe hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) that can occur due to an insulin overdose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Kidney disease is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension. Conditions such as chronic kidney disease or renal artery stenosis can lead to increased blood pressure due to fluid retention or increased renin production.
B. While pain can cause temporary increases in blood pressure due to the body's stress response, it is not an identifiable cause of secondary hypertension. Pain-related hypertension is usually acute and resolves once the pain is managed, rather than being a chronic condition.
C. Glaucoma is an eye condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, but it is not a cause of hypertension. Although systemic hypertension can affect eye health, glaucoma itself does not cause secondary hypertension. Therefore, this is not an identifiable cause.
D. Anemia does not directly cause secondary hypertension. While severe anemia can sometimes result in compensatory mechanisms that might elevate blood pressure, it is not a recognized or direct cause of secondary hypertension. Thus, it is not a primary concern in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The appropriate method for tick removal involves using fine-tipped tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the skin's surface as possible and pulling upward with steady, even pressure. This minimizes the risk of the tick's mouthparts breaking off and remaining in the skin.
B. Using bare fingers can be unsanitary and may cause the tick to release more saliva, potentially increasing the risk of disease transmission. Squeezing the tick can also lead to the release of harmful pathogens into the bloodstream.
C. DEET is an insect repellent that is used to prevent tick bites but should not be applied to a tick that is already embedded. Applying repellent will not assist in tick removal and may cause irritation to the skin.
D. While some people believe that applying mineral oil can cause a tick to detach, this method is not recommended. It may irritate the tick and could increase the likelihood of the tick regurgitating pathogens into the skin, raising the risk of infection.
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