Which of the following is a primary indication for performing a nonstress test during pregnancy?
To determine the exact gestational age of the fetus
To measure the amniotic fluid volume
To confirm the presence of labor contractions
To assess fetal well-being in cases of suspected fetal growth restriction
The Correct Answer is D
A. To determine the exact gestational age of the fetus. Gestational age is estimated via ultrasound and fundal height, not an NST.
B. To measure the amniotic fluid volume. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed with an ultrasound and amniotic fluid index (AFI), not an NST.
C. To confirm the presence of labor contractions. An NST does not confirm labor contractions; it evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement.
D. To assess fetal well-being in cases of suspected fetal growth restriction. An NST evaluates fetal oxygenation and well-being, making it useful in cases of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or other concerns about fetal health.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors: Fine tremors are a common expected side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. It is not an emergency but should be monitored.
B. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes: Proteinuria and 2+ reflexes are consistent with mild preeclampsia and do not necessarily indicate worsening or severe disease. However, monitoring is required to detect progression.
C. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache: Epigastric pain and a persistent headache suggest impending eclampsia or hepatic involvement (HELLP syndrome) and require immediate medical intervention to prevent seizures, stroke, or organ failure.
D. A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions: Irregular contractions at 32 weeks may indicate Braxton Hicks contractions or preterm labor, but they do not necessarily require immediate provider notification unless they become regular and progressive.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A client who has a history of preterm labor. A history of preterm labor is not an indication for MSAFP screening. MSAFP is primarily used to detect neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida) and chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome).
B. A client who has been exposed to AIDS. HIV/AIDS exposure does not impact MSAFP levels and is not an indication for the test. The focus in these clients is viral load monitoring and antiretroviral therapy.
C. A client who has mitral valve prolapse. Mitral valve prolapse does not affect fetal development in a way that would require MSAFP screening.
D. All of the clients. It is a standard screening test offered to all pregnant clients during the second trimester. The test is recommended for detecting fetal neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities, typically offered between 15-20 weeks of gestation.
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