Which of the following statements about pyelonephritis in pregnancy is correct?
Pyelonephritis in pregnancy does not pose any risks to the fetus.
Untreated pyelonephritis in pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor and low birth weight.
Pyelonephritis is a common condition during pregnancy.
Pyelonephritis is a mild infection that does not require treatment.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Pyelonephritis in pregnancy does not pose any risks to the fetus. Pyelonephritis can lead to complications such as preterm labor, low birth weight, and maternal sepsis, making this statement incorrect.
B. Untreated pyelonephritis in pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor and low birth weight. Pyelonephritis can cause systemic inflammation, leading to complications such as preterm labor and fetal growth restriction. Prompt treatment is necessary to reduce these risks.
C. Pyelonephritis is a common condition during pregnancy. While urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in pregnancy, pyelonephritis (kidney infection) is less frequent but more serious.
D. Pyelonephritis is a mild infection that does not require treatment. Pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires immediate antibiotic therapy to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 3+ protein in the urine: Severe proteinuria (≥2+ on dipstick) is a diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. The presence of 3+ proteinuria is consistent with preeclampsia.
B. 1+ pitting sacral edema: Edema is common in preeclampsia, especially in dependent areas like the hands, face, and sacral region. This is not inconsistent with preeclampsia.
C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg: Preeclampsia is defined as blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg after 20 weeks of gestation, with proteinuria or other signs of organ dysfunction. A BP of 148/98 mm Hg is consistent with preeclampsia.
D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1: Hyperreflexia (+3 or +4 reflexes) is a common finding in preeclampsia due to neuromuscular irritability. A +1 reflex response indicates diminished reflexes, which is not characteristic of preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Report of headache: Severe preeclampsia is associated with neurologic symptoms due to cerebral edema and vasospasm. Clients commonly report persistent headaches, visual disturbances, and altered mental status.
B. Absence of clonus: Clonus is a hyperactive reflex response often seen in severe preeclampsia, indicating increased neuromuscular irritability and possible central nervous system involvement. The presence, rather than absence, of clonus is expected.
C. Tachycardia: Severe preeclampsia is more commonly associated with hypertension and bradycardia rather than tachycardia. However, tachycardia may be present if the client is in distress or has an underlying complication.
D. Polyuria: Severe preeclampsia typically causes oliguria (reduced urine output) due to impaired kidney function and decreased renal perfusion, not polyuria.
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