Which of the following patients is most likely experiencing Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome based on their symptoms?
A 6 year old that is presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain, and vomiting
A 66 year old with type I diabetes that has ketones present in their urine.
A 72 year old with a health history of diabetes who has a blood glucose of 300 mg/dL and is complaining of thirst and frequent urination.
A 69 year old admitted with an infection of the right foot with a health history of diabetes that reports missing several doses of Metformin and has a blood glucose of 600 mg/dL.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Although important to assess for potential kidney injury, addressing hypotension due to potential spinal shock takes priority.
Choice B rationale: Important for determining any neurological deficits, but addressing hypotension is the initial priority.
Choice C rationale: Hypotension indicates potential spinal shock or hemorrhagic shock, and fluid resuscitation is the immediate priority to stabilize the client's blood pressure.
Choice D rationale: While important for assessing cardiac status, addressing hypotension takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is not relevant to the current condition of the patient and does not support a diagnosis of renal calculi.
Choice B rationale: This is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which can have many causes such as peptic ulcer, gastritis or esophageal varices. It is not related to renal calculi or urinary tract problems.
Choice C rationale: Renal calculi usually causes pain which usually radiates anteriorly to the lower abdomen, groin, labia, testicles or the perineum depending on the location of the stone.
Choice D rationale: This is a sign of hematuria, which is blood in the urine caused by the passage of renal calculi (kidney stones) through the urinary tract. Hematuria can also cause the urine to appear dark or brown in color.
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