Which of the following patients is most likely experiencing Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome based on their symptoms?
A 6 year old that is presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain, and vomiting
A 66 year old with type I diabetes that has ketones present in their urine.
A 72 year old with a health history of diabetes who has a blood glucose of 300 mg/dL and is complaining of thirst and frequent urination.
A 69 year old admitted with an infection of the right foot with a health history of diabetes that reports missing several doses of Metformin and has a blood glucose of 600 mg/dL.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is incorrect.
Choice B rationale: This describes metabolic syndrome, a collection of risk factors, but not a direct complication of type 1 diabetes.
Choice C rationale: This describes hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which is more characteristic of severe hyperglycemia but not the most common complication in type 1 diabetes.
Choice D rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a frequent and serious complication in type 1 diabetes, characterized by ketone formation due to the absence of insulin, leading to metabolic acidosis and potential life-threatening symptoms.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Correct. The statement is accurate because developing confusion could be a sign of a serious condition like severe electrolyte imbalance or dehydration, requiring immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale: Incorrect. Fluid intake should not be arbitrarily limited without medical advice, especially for a client with diabetes insipidus. Maintaining a consistent fluid intake is crucial, and any changes should be guided by a healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale: Correct. Weighing oneself at the same time every day is a good practice for monitoring fluid balance and identifying sudden changes that may indicate a problem.
Choice D rationale: Incorrect. Desmopressin doses should be administered as prescribed. The medication's administration should be consistent with the healthcare provider's instructions or the medication guide, not arbitrarily altered.
Choice E rationale: Correct. Keeping a log of fluid intake and urine output is important for managing diabetes insipidus effectively and allows for informed adjustments in fluid intake or medication dosage.
Choice F rationale: Incorrect. Adjusting medication dosage without consulting a healthcare provider is not safe. While increased urination is a symptom of diabetes insipidus, the client should consult their healthcare provider if their symptoms persist or worsen, rather than self-adjusting the medication dose.
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