Which of the following describes the correct procedure for testing for Kernig's sign?
Rotate the neck to one side while observing the eyes moving to the opposite side.
Passively elevate the leg with extended knee while observing for pain, resistance, or flexion.
Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the patient's foot and observe for dorsiflexion of the big toe.
Passively flex the patient's neck forward and observe for hip and knee flexion.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Rotating the neck to one side while observing the eyes moving to the opposite side is a procedure for testing for oculocephalic reflex or doll's eye
phenomenon, which indicates brainstem function.
Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Kernig's sign is a clinical sign that indicates meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. To test for Kernig's sign, the nurse should flex the patient's hip to 90 degrees and then attempt to extend the knee. A positive Kernig's sign is when the patient
experiences pain in the lower back or hamstring, resists knee extension, or involuntarily flexes the opposite leg.
Choice C rationale: Stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the patient's foot and observing for dorsiflexion of the big toe is a procedure for testing for Babinski's sign, which indicates upper motor neuron lesion or damage.
Choice D rationale: Passively flexing the patient's neck forward and observing for hip and knee flexion is a procedure for testing for Brudzinski's sign, which also indicates meningitis.
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Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is not the accurate amount of fluid intake by the patient.
Choice B rationale: This is less than the total fluid intake by the patient.
Choice C rationale: This is less than the total fluid intake by the patient.
Choice D rationale: This is correct.( This is the sum of the intravenous fluid, the water, and the chicken broth, converted to milliliters: 650 + (6 x 30) + (8 x 30) = 1070.)
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Metformin belongs to the biguanide class of antidiabetic medications.
Choice B rationale: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione used to treat diabetes, not a sulfonylurea.
Choice C rationale: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea used to stimulate insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes.
Choice D rationale: Repaglinide is a meglitinide, another class of drugs that stimulates insulin release.
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