Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Multiparity.

Endometriosis.

Under 40 years of age.

Use of contraceptive medications.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.

Choice B rationale:

Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.

Choice C rationale:

Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.

Choice D rationale:

Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should report a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 35 mg/dL to the provider. BUN measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood and is used to assess kidney function. An elevated BUN can indicate impaired renal function, which is a concern in preeclampsia, as it may signify reduced blood flow to the kidneys.

Choice B rationale:

Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 15 mg/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy (normal range: 11-15 g/dL), so there is no need to report it to the provider.

Choice C rationale:

Bilirubin level of 0.6 mg/dL is within the normal range (normal range: 0.2-1.3 mg/dL), so there is no need to report it to the provider.

Choice D rationale:

Hematocrit (Hct) level of 37% is within the normal range for pregnancy (normal range: 33- 45%), so there is no need to report it to the provider.

A. "There is an increased risk of introducing infection.” B. "This could initiate preterm labor.” C. "This could result in profound bleeding.” D. "There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

Choice C rationale:

The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

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Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

A nurse is caring for a client who has placenta previa. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for this client? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has fibrocystic breast changes and is experiencing breast discomfort during menstruation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?

A nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn how to care for their child's uncircumcised penis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?