Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?
Multiparity.
Endometriosis.
Under 40 years of age.
Use of contraceptive medications.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.
Choice C rationale:
Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.
Choice D rationale:
Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. A nonstress test does not involve receiving medication through an
IV. It is a simple and non-invasive test that monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its movements.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. A nonstress test typically takes about 30 minutes to complete. During the test, the client will have a fetal heart rate monitor placed on her abdomen to measure the baby's heart rate while it is moving.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. There is no requirement for the client to fast or restrict food and drink before a nonstress test. The client can eat and drink as usual before the procedure.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is incorrect. A nonstress test is not used to determine if the baby's lungs are mature. Instead, it assesses the baby's heart rate patterns in response to its own movements, which helps evaluate the baby's overall well-being in the third trimester of pregnancy.
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