A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
Heart disease.
Cervical dilation of 2 cm.
Gestational age of 34 weeks.
Allergy to penicillin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Restricting protein intake to less than 40 g/day is not appropriate for a client with preeclampsia with severe features. While protein restriction might be advised in some cases of preeclampsia, it is not a priority in severe cases where the focus is on managing potential complications.
Choice B rationale:
Initiating seizure precautions is essential in managing a client with preeclampsia with severe features. Preeclampsia can lead to eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures. Seizure precautions involve implementing measures to prevent injury during a seizure, such as padding the side rails of the bed, ensuring a clear environment, and having emergency equipment readily available.
Choice C rationale:
Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 ml/hr is not directly related to managing preeclampsia with severe features. Although intravenous fluids may be necessary in some cases, the priority in this situation is to prevent and manage potential seizures.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging the client to ambulate twice per day is not appropriate for a client with preeclampsia with severe features. Bed rest is often recommended in severe cases to reduce stress on the cardiovascular system and decrease the risk of complications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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