A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
Heart disease.
Cervical dilation of 2 cm.
Gestational age of 34 weeks.
Allergy to penicillin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Nulliparity (never having given birth) is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Women who have never had children have a higher risk compared to those who have. This is believed to be associated with the number of ovulatory cycles a woman experiences throughout her lifetime.
Choice B rationale:
History of breastfeeding does not have a direct link to ovarian cancer risk. In fact, breastfeeding is associated with a reduced risk of both breast and ovarian cancer due to hormonal changes that occur during lactation.
Choice C rationale:
Previous use of oral contraceptives is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer. Women who have used birth control pills have a lower risk compared to those who have never used them. The protective effect is believed to be due to the suppression of ovulation.
Choice D rationale:
History of breast cancer is not a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Although both cancers are related to the reproductive system, they have distinct risk factors and characteristics.
Choice E rationale:
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a potential risk factor for ovarian cancer, especially long-term use. The hormones used in HRT can affect hormone levels and may increase the risk of ovarian cancer.
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