A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
Heart disease.
Cervical dilation of 2 cm.
Gestational age of 34 weeks.
Allergy to penicillin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
The correct answers are C, D, E.
Choice A reason:
Performing a vaginal exam is contraindicated in placenta previa because it can disrupt the placenta and cause significant bleeding.
Choice B reason:
Monitoring fetal heart rate with an internal fetal monitor is not recommended as it involves a vaginal exam, which poses a risk of bleeding in placenta previa cases.
Choice C reason:
Frequently assessing maternal heart rate is important to detect any changes that could indicate maternal hemorrhage or other complications.
Choice D reason:
Initiating bed rest with bathroom privileges is advised to minimize the risk of bleeding and to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.
Choice E reason:
Having oxygen equipment available is essential to manage potential fetal distress, which can occur with placenta previa.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion is not appropriate when the nurse notes an umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord to prevent fetal compromise, and administering oxytocin could worsen the situation.
Choice B rationale:
Applying oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is not the priority when an umbilical cord prolapse is detected. The focus should be on relieving pressure on the cord and changing the client's position to alleviate the compression.
Choice C rationale:
Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter is not appropriate when there is an umbilical cord prolapse. The immediate concern is the potential compromise of fetal blood flow, and addressing the cord prolapse takes precedence over any other interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Assisting the client into the knee-chest position is the correct action when an umbilical cord prolapse is observed during a vaginal exam. This position helps to alleviate pressure on the cord by moving the presenting part of the fetus off the cord and can prevent further fetal distress until more definitive interventions can be performed.
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