Which patient would be at greatest risk for developing osteoporosis?
An 84-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid).
A 55-year-old woman who recently had a hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and refuses estrogen therapy.
A 69-year-old woman who had a renal transplant 5 years ago and has been taking prednisone to prevent organ rejection.
A 73-year-old man who has 5 alcoholic drinks per week and limits sun exposure to prevent recurrence of skin cancer.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Hypothyroidism, particularly if untreated, can contribute to bone loss, but levothyroxine therapy typically normalizes thyroid function, mitigating this risk. While age is a risk factor, other choices present more significant and direct risks for accelerated bone demineralization and osteoporosis development.
Choice B rationale
Estrogen plays a crucial role in bone density maintenance by inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting osteoblast activity. A bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy removes the primary source of estrogen, leading to premature menopause and rapid bone loss, significantly increasing osteoporosis risk if hormone therapy is refused.
Choice C rationale
Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is a potent cause of secondary osteoporosis. It directly inhibits osteoblast function, promotes osteoclast activity, and impairs calcium absorption, leading to significant bone density loss. Long-term use post-transplant makes this patient at exceptionally high risk.
Choice D rationale
Excessive alcohol intake (more than 2-3 drinks daily) is a risk factor for osteoporosis by impairing bone formation and nutrient absorption. Limiting sun exposure can cause vitamin D deficiency, also contributing to reduced bone density. However, this patient's alcohol intake is moderate, and vitamin D deficiency is more easily corrected.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Kyphosis, an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine, is a common spinal deformity in older adults with osteoporosis. This occurs due to vertebral compression fractures, where the weakened bone structure collapses anteriorly, leading to a "hunchback" appearance and loss of height, affecting posture and balance.
Choice B rationale
Ankylosis refers to the stiffening and immobility of a joint due to fusion of bones. While joint issues can occur in older adults, ankylosis is not a direct spinal deformity associated with osteoporosis; rather, it is more commonly linked to inflammatory conditions like ankylosing spondylitis or severe osteoarthritis.
Choice C rationale
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine, often appearing as an S or C shape. While it can occur in older adults, it is not primarily a direct consequence or expected spinal deformity of osteoporosis. Adult degenerative scoliosis is often due to disc degeneration and facet joint arthritis, not solely bone demineralization.
Choice D rationale
Lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine. While some degree of lumbar lordosis is normal, hyperlordosis can occur, but it is not the characteristic spinal deformity expected in osteoporosis. Osteoporosis typically leads to kyphosis due to anterior wedging of vertebral bodies, not increased lumbar curvature.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Idiopathic Parkinsonism is characterized by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to a deficiency of dopamine in the basal ganglia. This creates an imbalance with acetylcholine, an excitatory neurotransmitter. Benztropine, an anticholinergic, helps restore this balance by blocking acetylcholine receptors, reducing tremors and rigidity.
Choice B rationale
While some forms of Parkinson's disease have genetic links, idiopathic Parkinsonism is not primarily defined by an autosomal dominant genetic defect. It is multifactorial, involving a complex interplay of genetic predispositions and environmental factors, with no single dominant gene responsible for the vast majority of cases.
Choice C rationale
Atherosclerosis and lack of blood supply are associated with vascular Parkinsonism, which is distinct from idiopathic Parkinsonism. Vascular Parkinsonism results from cerebrovascular disease leading to neuronal damage, while idiopathic Parkinsonism involves neurodegeneration of dopamine-producing neurons, not primarily ischemic injury.
Choice D rationale
Estrogen and progesterone are sex hormones and are not directly involved in the primary pathophysiological imbalance of neurotransmitters in idiopathic Parkinsonism. While hormonal fluctuations can influence neurological conditions, the core defect in Parkinsonism involves dopamine and acetylcholine dysregulation in the basal ganglia.
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