Which term is used to describe persistently elevated blood pressure with an unknown cause that accounts for approximately 90% of hypertension cases?
Secondary hypertension
Malignant hypertension
Primary hypertension
Accelerated hypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Secondary hypertension has an identifiable cause, like renal disease, and accounts for about 10% of cases. Primary hypertension, with no known cause, is far more common, making this an incorrect term, as it does not describe the majority of hypertension cases seen clinically.
Choice B reason: Malignant hypertension is a severe, rapidly progressing form with organ damage, not the common form of hypertension. Primary hypertension, with no identifiable cause, represents 90% of cases, making this term incorrect, as it refers to a rare, acute condition, not the typical presentation.
Choice C reason: Primary hypertension, also called essential hypertension, has no identifiable cause and accounts for approximately 90% of cases. It develops gradually, influenced by genetics and lifestyle, making this the correct term to describe the most common form of persistently elevated blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Accelerated hypertension involves rapid blood pressure elevation with organ damage, not the typical chronic, idiopathic form. Primary hypertension, without a known cause, is the predominant type, making this term incorrect, as it describes a severe, less common variant of hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease affects lungs, not arteries, and is not a primary cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm, which results from arterial wall weakening due to atherosclerosis. This is incorrect, as it does not contribute to the vascular pathology underlying aneurysm formation.
Choice B reason: Atherosclerosis is the primary underlying disease for abdominal aortic aneurysm, causing arterial wall weakening through plaque buildup, leading to dilation and risk of rupture. This matches the pathophysiology, making it the correct condition the nurse should expect in a client with this diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Renal failure is not a direct cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm, which is driven by atherosclerosis. While renal issues may coexist, they do not weaken arterial walls, making this incorrect, as atherosclerosis is the primary contributor to aneurysm development in the aorta.
Choice D reason: Diabetes contributes to atherosclerosis but is not the direct underlying cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm. Atherosclerosis itself, driven by plaque buildup, is the primary pathology, making diabetes a secondary risk factor and an incorrect choice compared to atherosclerosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Limiting movement increases venous stasis, raising deep vein thrombosis risk. Mobility, like walking, promotes venous return, preventing clots. This is incorrect, as the nurse should teach interventions like compression devices to enhance circulation, not restrict movement, which worsens thrombosis risk.
Choice B reason: Sequential compression devices promote venous return by applying intermittent pressure, reducing stasis and preventing deep vein thrombosis. This is a standard intervention for immobile patients, making it the correct choice to include in teaching for effective DVT prevention among newly licensed nurses.
Choice C reason: Massaging lower extremities risks dislodging clots, increasing embolism risk in patients prone to deep vein thrombosis. Compression devices are safer, making this incorrect, as the nurse should avoid teaching interventions that could cause harm instead of preventing thrombosis.
Choice D reason: Checking for Homan’s sign (calf pain on dorsiflexion) is a diagnostic, not preventive, measure for deep vein thrombosis and is unreliable. Preventive interventions like compression devices are prioritized, making this incorrect for teaching, as it does not contribute to DVT prevention strategies.
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