While assessing a client with Graves disease, the nurse notes that the client's temperature has risen 1 degree Fahrenheit. Which action should the nurse take first?
Turn the lights down and shut the client's door.
Call for an immediate electrocardiogram (ECG).
Calculate the client's apical-radial pulse deficit.
Administer a dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: A quiet, dark environment is part of supportive care for a patient with hyperthyroidism, as it can reduce anxiety and sympathetic nervous system stimulation. However, a 1-degree Fahrenheit increase in temperature is a critical early sign of a developing thyroid storm, a life-threatening condition. This action is not the most urgent and is supportive, not a direct intervention.
Choice B rationale: An elevation in temperature, even a slight one, in a patient with Graves disease is a hallmark sign of an impending thyroid storm, a hypermetabolic state that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias and death. An immediate ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac complications such as tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, and other life-threatening dysrhythmias that can develop rapidly in this emergency.
Choice C rationale: The apical-radial pulse deficit is a measure of the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. While a significant deficit can indicate a dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, which is a concern with Graves disease, assessing the heart's electrical activity via an ECG is a more direct and immediate action to identify and manage the root cause of the cardiac instability.
Choice D rationale: Administering acetaminophen can help reduce fever, a symptom of thyroid storm. However, it does not address the underlying hypermetabolic state or the critical cardiac complications that are the primary danger. It is not the first or most critical action, as a full cardiac assessment via ECG is paramount to guide definitive treatment and prevent a fatal outcome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease where the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. This process is irreversible, leading to a permanent inability to produce insulin. The pancreas will not recover its function, and the client will always require exogenous insulin.
Choice B rationale: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absolute lack of insulin production due to the autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells. Without insulin, the body cannot utilize glucose for energy, a condition that is incompatible with life. Consequently, clients with type 1 diabetes will require lifelong insulin replacement therapy to survive.
Choice C rationale: Insulin is a peptide hormone that is destroyed by digestive enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, it cannot be taken orally in a pill form. Insulin must be administered via injection to be effective. Oral medications are typically used for type 2 diabetes, which involves insulin resistance or insufficient insulin production, not an absolute lack.
Choice D rationale: While exercise and diet are essential for managing blood glucose levels in all types of diabetes, they cannot replace the absolute lack of insulin in type 1 diabetes. These lifestyle modifications help improve insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization but do not stimulate the pancreas to produce the missing hormone.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Certain antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones, can cause both hypo- and hyperglycemia, but this effect is less common and less pronounced than the effect of corticosteroids. The significant and sustained increase in blood glucose is more characteristic of steroid use, which is a known and common side effect.
Choice B rationale: Corticosteroids stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver and reduce glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, leading to insulin resistance. This combination results in a significant increase in blood glucose levels, a phenomenon known as steroid-induced hyperglycemia. The patient's type 2 diabetes exacerbates this effect.
Choice C rationale: Type 2 diabetes does not convert to type 1 diabetes. These are distinct pathophysiological conditions. Type 1 is an autoimmune disease with absolute insulin deficiency, while type 2 involves insulin resistance and relative deficiency. The current elevated glucose is an acute, reversible effect of medication, not a change in the underlying disease.
Choice D rationale: While hypoxia can lead to a stress response that increases blood glucose, it is not the primary cause of this sustained elevation in a patient on corticosteroids. The direct metabolic effects of corticosteroids on glucose metabolism are the most significant and likely cause of the observed hyperglycemia.
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