A nurse is preparing to receive a client from the PACU who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should ensure that which of the following equipment is available? (Select all that apply)
Oxygen delivery equipment.
Humidified air.
Suction equipment.
Tracheostomy tray.
Padded tongue blade.
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A rationale: Oxygen delivery equipment is essential post-thyroidectomy due to the risk of respiratory distress. Surgical manipulation near the trachea can cause swelling, compromising the airway. Additionally, laryngeal nerve damage is a potential complication, which can lead to vocal cord paralysis and airway obstruction. Having oxygen readily available ensures immediate intervention for hypoxemia.
Choice B rationale: Humidified air is not a primary, immediately essential piece of emergency equipment for a client from the PACU post-thyroidectomy. While it can be used to soothe an irritated airway and reduce coughing, it is not a life-saving intervention for acute respiratory distress. The most critical concerns are airway obstruction and bleeding.
Choice C rationale: Suction equipment is vital to manage potential airway obstruction from secretions or blood. Post-thyroidectomy, there is a risk of hemorrhage and edema, which can lead to pooling of blood or fluid in the pharyngeal area. A functional suction setup allows for the immediate clearance of the airway to maintain patency.
Choice D rationale: A tracheostomy tray is crucial emergency equipment because of the high risk of airway compromise. Postoperative edema, hematoma formation, or laryngeal nerve damage can cause acute respiratory distress. If intubation is not possible, an emergency tracheostomy may be required to secure the airway and prevent suffocation.
Choice E rationale: A padded tongue blade is not a recommended piece of equipment for a client post-thyroidectomy. The use of a tongue blade is associated with a risk of damaging the oral tissues and is ineffective for managing the specific airway complications, such as edema or hematoma, that are most likely to occur after this surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Insulin lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin analog. Its amino acid sequence has been modified to allow for rapid absorption from the injection site into the bloodstream. This modification prevents the formation of hexamers, which are slowly absorbed, allowing the insulin to become biologically active within 15 minutes of administration.
Choice B rationale: Regular insulin, a short-acting type, typically has an onset of action of 30 to 60 minutes. Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH have a much longer onset, starting around 1 to 2 hours. Insulin lispro's rapid action is designed to be taken with meals to control postprandial hyperglycemia, which begins immediately after eating.
Choice C rationale: An onset of 80 minutes falls outside the typical time frame for both rapid and short-acting insulins. The pharmacokinetics of insulin lispro are specifically engineered for a quick onset to coincide with mealtime glucose spikes, and its action is not delayed for over an hour.
Choice D rationale: The peak effect of insulin lispro is around 1 to 2 hours, but its onset is much faster. Long-acting insulins like glargine (Lantus) have a much more prolonged effect, with a duration that can extend to 24 hours, but they lack a distinct peak. The 3 to 5 hour period is too long for the onset of a rapid-acting insulin.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria, and glycosuria are hallmark clinical manifestations of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Polydipsia is excessive thirst due to hyperosmolarity and dehydration from polyuria. Polyphagia is increased hunger resulting from cellular starvation despite hyperglycemia. Polyuria is frequent urination caused by osmotic diuresis from glucose spilling into the renal tubules, and glycosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine.
Choice B rationale: While obesity and excessive sugar consumption are risk factors for developing type 2 diabetes, they are not direct clinical symptoms of the disease itself. They are associated with the metabolic syndrome that often precedes diabetes. The symptoms are the physiological consequences of insulin resistance or deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia.
Choice C rationale: While weight loss can occur in uncontrolled diabetes (due to osmotic diuresis and catabolism), nervousness and dysuria are not primary, classic symptoms. Dysuria (painful urination) is more indicative of a urinary tract infection, which can be a complication of diabetes, but not a core symptom. Nervousness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, not typically hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale: A blood glucose level of 90 mg/100 mL is within the normal range (fasting blood glucose is 70–100 mg/dL). Therefore, this finding does not indicate diabetes mellitus. While albumin in the urine (microalbuminuria) is a sign of diabetic nephropathy, a long-term complication, it is not a direct, initial clinical symptom of the disease's onset.
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