You are receiving report from the night shift nurse on a laboring client.
She is 39 weeks gestation, cervical exam is 9cm/100%/0, she has an epidural in place for pain management.
ROM occurred 25 hours ago with a moderate amount of clear fluid.
EFM assessment includes baseline 175bpm, minimal variability, no accelerations, no decelerations.
Vital signs: Blood pressure: 118/84 mmHg.
Respiratory Rate: 16/min.
O2 saturation: 99% on R
Intraamniotic infection.
Pyelonephritis.
Cholestasis of pregnancy.
Placental abruption.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Intraamniotic infection (chorioamnionitis) is suspected due to the combination of prolonged rupture of membranes (25 hours), maternal fever (39.2°C), and fetal tachycardia (baseline of 175 bpm). These are key indicators of infection within the amniotic sac.
Choice B rationale
Pyelonephritis, an infection of the kidneys, is unlikely without the presence of symptoms such as flank pain, dysuria, and significant changes in urinalysis. The primary signs point towards intraamniotic infection.
Choice C rationale
Cholestasis of pregnancy primarily presents with intense itching, especially on the hands and feet, and does not typically involve fever or abnormal fetal heart rates. Thus, it is less likely in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Placental abruption involves the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, often presenting with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine contractions. The absence of these symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Methotrexate is used for treating ectopic pregnancies and certain cancers, but it is not an antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity.
Choice B rationale
Labetalol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension management in pregnancy, not for reversing Magnesium Sulfate toxicity.
Choice C rationale
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage high blood pressure and preterm labor, not for counteracting Magnesium Sulfate toxicity.
Choice D rationale
Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity, effectively reversing its effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine contractions are not a primary indicator of preeclampsia but rather of labor.
Choice B rationale
Preeclampsia is associated with hyperreflexia, not decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Choice C rationale
Preeclampsia is primarily monitored through blood pressure and proteinuria, not blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale
Proteinuria is a key indicator of preeclampsia, caused by kidney damage due to high blood pressure.
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