You are receiving report from the night shift nurse on a laboring client.
She is 39 weeks gestation, cervical exam is 9cm/100%/0, she has an epidural in place for pain management.
ROM occurred 25 hours ago with a moderate amount of clear fluid.
EFM assessment includes baseline 175bpm, minimal variability, no accelerations, no decelerations.
Vital signs: Blood pressure: 118/84 mmHg.
Respiratory Rate: 16/min.
O2 saturation: 99% on R
Intraamniotic infection.
Pyelonephritis.
Cholestasis of pregnancy.
Placental abruption.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Intraamniotic infection (chorioamnionitis) is suspected due to the combination of prolonged rupture of membranes (25 hours), maternal fever (39.2°C), and fetal tachycardia (baseline of 175 bpm). These are key indicators of infection within the amniotic sac.
Choice B rationale
Pyelonephritis, an infection of the kidneys, is unlikely without the presence of symptoms such as flank pain, dysuria, and significant changes in urinalysis. The primary signs point towards intraamniotic infection.
Choice C rationale
Cholestasis of pregnancy primarily presents with intense itching, especially on the hands and feet, and does not typically involve fever or abnormal fetal heart rates. Thus, it is less likely in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Placental abruption involves the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, often presenting with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine contractions. The absence of these symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placenta accreta spectrum involves abnormal adherence of the placenta to the uterine wall, leading to complications during delivery and often necessitating a cesarean and possibly a hysterectomy.
Choice B rationale
Placenta previa refers to the placenta covering the cervix, which can cause bleeding but is managed differently.
Choice C rationale
Placenta abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, leading to pain and bleeding, managed differently from accreta spectrum.
Choice D rationale
Posterior placental location refers to the position of the placenta in the uterus and does not typically require a cesarean and hysterectomy unless complicated by other factors.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asthma is a respiratory condition and is not directly linked to an increased risk of placental abruption. While chronic conditions can affect pregnancy, asthma is not a direct risk factor for abruption.
Choice B rationale
Hyperthyroidism is a thyroid condition that can cause complications during pregnancy, but it is not a known risk factor for placental abruption. It affects the mother's metabolism and can impact fetal development, but does not typically cause placental detachment.
Choice C rationale
Previous cesarean delivery is associated with risks such as uterine rupture in future pregnancies, but not specifically with placental abruption. The scar tissue from a cesarean may affect the placenta's position, but does not increase the risk of abruption directly.
Choice D rationale
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a significant risk factor for placental abruption. It can damage the blood vessels in the placenta, leading to separation from the uterine wall and resulting in abruption, which can be dangerous for both mother and baby.
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