A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client in the emergency unit.
The nurse should anticipate a provider prescription for
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Given the symptoms and physical examination findings, the nurse should anticipate a provider prescription for Acyclovir as evidenced by the presence of vesicles and pustules.
The case presented shows several key indicators that point toward a diagnosis of genital herpes, which is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV).
- Presence of vesicles and pustules: The small, pinpoint open vesicles and pustules on the labia majora, along with clear drainage, are classic signs of genital herpes.
- Erythema and tenderness: The redness (erythema) and tenderness of the perineal area further support this diagnosis.
- Systemic symptoms: The client reports muscle aches and chills, which are common systemic symptoms of a viral infection like herpes.
- Denies dysuria and other severe symptoms: The absence of symptoms like dysuria and acute distress is consistent with the presentation of genital herpes during the vesicle stage.
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly prescribed for the treatment of herpes simplex infections. It helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Hence, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Acyclovir based on the clinical presentation and findings.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Aminoinfusion is a procedure where fluid is infused into the amniotic sac. It is used to treat certain complications during labor but is not related to treating an incompetent cervix.
Choice B rationale
Hysterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the uterus and is not a treatment for an incompetent cervix. It is typically performed for conditions such as cancer, severe bleeding, or other significant uterine issues.
Choice C rationale
Cerclage is the correct term for the surgical procedure used to treat an incompetent cervix. It involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature dilation, which can lead to miscarriage or preterm birth.
Choice D rationale
Beta-adrenergic agonist therapy is used to delay preterm labor by relaxing the uterus but does not address the structural issue of an incompetent cervix. It is a medication-based approach rather than a surgical one. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity but is administered after stopping the infusion.
Choice B rationale
The first action is to stop the magnesium sulfate infusion to prevent further respiratory depression and absent reflexes.
Choice C rationale
Preparing for an urgent cesarean birth is not the immediate first action for treating magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Choice D rationale
Administering IV fluid bolus does not address the immediate issue of magnesium sulfate toxicity. .
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