A nurse is caring for a 30-year-old female client who is gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks of gestation in the antepartum clinic.
A nurse reviews the assessment findings and determines the findings are consistent with which of the following complications?
Abdominal assessment
Abdominal pain level
Uterine tone
Description of bleeding
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Based on the assessment findings, the nurse determines that the findings are consistent with abruptio placentae (placental abruption)1.
Here's a breakdown of the findings:
- Abdominal assessment: Rigid and tender abdomen21.
- Abdominal pain level: The client reports abdominal pain21.
- Uterine tone: No evidence of uterine contractions21.
- Description of bleeding: Dark red vaginal bleeding21.
Placental abruption is characterized by the placenta partially or completely separating from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause painful bleeding and a rigid, tender abdomen21
Here's a table with the assessment findings, indicating which findings are consistent with placenta previa and abruptio placentae:
Assessment Findings |
Placenta Previa |
Abruptio Placentae |
Abdominal assessment |
✔ |
|
Abdominal pain level |
✔ |
|
Uterine tone |
✔ |
|
Description of bleeding |
✔ |
✔ |
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intraamniotic infection (chorioamnionitis) is suspected due to the combination of prolonged rupture of membranes (25 hours), maternal fever (39.2°C), and fetal tachycardia (baseline of 175 bpm). These are key indicators of infection within the amniotic sac.
Choice B rationale
Pyelonephritis, an infection of the kidneys, is unlikely without the presence of symptoms such as flank pain, dysuria, and significant changes in urinalysis. The primary signs point towards intraamniotic infection.
Choice C rationale
Cholestasis of pregnancy primarily presents with intense itching, especially on the hands and feet, and does not typically involve fever or abnormal fetal heart rates. Thus, it is less likely in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Placental abruption involves the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, often presenting with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine contractions. The absence of these symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asthma is a respiratory condition and is not directly linked to an increased risk of placental abruption. While chronic conditions can affect pregnancy, asthma is not a direct risk factor for abruption.
Choice B rationale
Hyperthyroidism is a thyroid condition that can cause complications during pregnancy, but it is not a known risk factor for placental abruption. It affects the mother's metabolism and can impact fetal development, but does not typically cause placental detachment.
Choice C rationale
Previous cesarean delivery is associated with risks such as uterine rupture in future pregnancies, but not specifically with placental abruption. The scar tissue from a cesarean may affect the placenta's position, but does not increase the risk of abruption directly.
Choice D rationale
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a significant risk factor for placental abruption. It can damage the blood vessels in the placenta, leading to separation from the uterine wall and resulting in abruption, which can be dangerous for both mother and baby.
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