Your patient has Iron deficiency anemia because of their pica. Which of the following lab results is EXPECTED in this condition?
High serum Iron and Low MCV
High serum Iron and Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
High Total Iron Binding Capacity: Low serum Iron and MCV
None of the above
The Correct Answer is C
A. In iron deficiency anemia, serum iron levels are typically low due to a deficiency in iron. Additionally, the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is often low because the red blood cells produced are smaller than normal (microcytic).
B. Similar to option A, serum iron levels in iron deficiency anemia would be low, not high. The MCV may be low or normal, but it would not be high due to the production of microcytic red blood cells.
C. In iron deficiency anemia, TIBC is usually high because the body is trying to maximize iron transport in response to low iron levels. Serum iron is low, and the MCV is low due to the production of smaller red blood cells.
D. This option is incorrect because option C accurately describes the expected lab results in iron deficiency anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While obtaining a sputum culture is important for diagnosing a potential respiratory infection, it is not the immediate priority. The patient’s vital signs and oxygenation status need to be assessed first to ensure safety and to inform clinical decisions.
B. Assessing the patient’s vital signs and oxygen saturation is critical in this situation. The symptoms of disorientation, chills, and chest pain could indicate a serious condition such as pneumonia or pulmonary embolism.
C. Gathering a complete history is valuable for understanding the patient's condition and underlying causes of symptoms. However, this action should follow immediate assessments of vital signs and oxygen saturation, especially in a potentially unstable patient.
D. Administering the pneumococcal vaccine is important for prevention but is not an urgent action in this acute situation. The patient’s current symptoms require immediate assessment and intervention rather than preventive measures.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Osteoarthritis (OA) typically presents with joint pain and stiffness, but it is usually unilateral and does not cause the same types of deformities seen in RA. OA also tends to develop over time without the systemic symptoms associated with RA.
B. The combination of bilateral pain and morning stiffness in the hands, along with the presence of large nodules (likely rheumatoid nodules), swan-neck deformities, and ulnar deviation, is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA is an autoimmune disorder that affects joints symmetrically and commonly leads to these specific deformities.
C. Lupus arthritis can cause joint pain and swelling, but it is often accompanied by other systemic symptoms like skin rashes (butterfly rash), fatigue, and organ involvement. The specific deformities noted (swan-neck and ulnar deviation) are more closely aligned with RA than lupus.
D. Gout is characterized by sudden, severe attacks of pain, often in the big toe or foot, and is caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joints. It does not typically present with the deformities or patterns seen in the described patient.
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