Your patient has Iron deficiency anemia because of their pica. Which of the following lab results is EXPECTED in this condition?
High serum Iron and Low MCV
High serum Iron and Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
High Total Iron Binding Capacity: Low serum Iron and MCV
None of the above
The Correct Answer is C
A. In iron deficiency anemia, serum iron levels are typically low due to a deficiency in iron. Additionally, the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is often low because the red blood cells produced are smaller than normal (microcytic).
B. Similar to option A, serum iron levels in iron deficiency anemia would be low, not high. The MCV may be low or normal, but it would not be high due to the production of microcytic red blood cells.
C. In iron deficiency anemia, TIBC is usually high because the body is trying to maximize iron transport in response to low iron levels. Serum iron is low, and the MCV is low due to the production of smaller red blood cells.
D. This option is incorrect because option C accurately describes the expected lab results in iron deficiency anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Oxygen therapy may be indicated if the patient shows signs of respiratory distress or has low oxygen saturation levels, but it does not address the underlying pain or dehydration associated with the crisis.
B. Blood transfusions can be an effective treatment for severe complications of sickle cell disease, including acute chest syndrome or severe anemia. However, transfusions are not typically the immediate priority in the early management of a sickle cell crisis unless there is a clear indication of severe anemia or complications.
C. IV fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration, which can exacerbate sickle cell crises. Adequate hydration helps reduce blood viscosity and can alleviate some symptoms. However, while important, fluid therapy alone does not address the immediate and often severe pain that patients experience.
D. Pain management is the top priority in the management of a patient in a sickle cell crisis. Patients often experience severe pain due to vaso-occlusive events, and addressing pain is essential for patient comfort and quality of care.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
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