Ati ew n300 med surg exam oncology
Ati ew n300 med surg exam oncology
Total Questions : 47
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is caring for a client who has advanced lung cancer. The client's provider has recommended hospice services for the client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a correct understanding of hospice care?
Explanation
A. Hospice care is intended for clients who are no longer pursuing curative treatment. The focus shifts from curing the disease to providing comfort, pain management, and emotional support at the end of life.
B. Hospice care is specifically for individuals who have a prognosis of 6 months or less to live, assuming the illness runs its normal course. This eligibility criterion is central to receiving hospice services.
C. Hospice care can be provided in various settings, including the client’s home, a hospice facility, a hospital, or a long-term care facility. Admission to a specific facility is not a requirement.
D. Hospice care focuses on symptom management, pain control, and quality of life for clients who are terminally ill. The interdisciplinary hospice team addresses the physical, emotional, spiritual, and social needs of the client.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension due to loss of sympathetic tone, leading to vasodilation. Intravenous fluids like Lactated Ringers are commonly prescribed to increase blood volume and support blood pressure.
B. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, which reduces heart rate and blood pressure. It would not be used in neurogenic shock, where the goal is to improve blood pressure and cardiac output.
C. Epinephrine is a vasopressor and can be used to help increase blood pressure and heart rate in shock states, including neurogenic shock. It helps in vasoconstriction and improving perfusion.
D. Dopamine is another vasopressor and inotropic agent that can be used to improve blood pressure and cardiac output in neurogenic shock. It works by stimulating the heart and constricting blood vessels.
E. Furosemide is a diuretic, and would not typically be used in neurogenic shock. In fact, it may worsen hypoperfusion by decreasing circulating blood volume. Diuretics are usually used for conditions like heart failure or fluid overload, not shock management
A client is to receive methylprednisolone 6 mg IV push. The medication is available as a vial with 4mg/mL. What volume should the nurse administer?
Explanation
Step 1: Identify what is given
Prescribed dose: 6 mg
Available concentration: 4 mg/mL
Step 2: Use the formula
Volume (mL) = Prescribed Dose (mg) ÷ Concentration (mg/mL)
Volume = 6 ÷ 4 = 1.5 mL
The nurse is caring for a client in the immediate postoperative period following a pancreatoduodenectomy (Whipple) procedure. A nursing problem of Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume has been assessed. What would be the priority nursing assessment?
Explanation
A. Respiratory rate, respiratory depth, and pulse oximetry is important for assessing respiratory status, especially postoperatively, but does not directly address fluid volume status, which is the priority nursing problem in this case.
B. After a pancreatoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure), patients are at risk for fluid imbalances due to potential complications such as leakage, infection, or inadequate gastrointestinal absorption. Monitoring abdominal girth, bowel sounds, and NG tube output helps assess fluid volume status and gastrointestinal function.
C. While BUN, creatinine, and weight are valuable in assessing kidney function and fluid status, the immediate postoperative concern is more focused on gastrointestinal function and fluid loss from surgical drainage, rather than renal function alone.
D. Vital signs and cardiac rhythm are important for monitoring overall cardiovascular status, but they do not specifically address the risk of deficient fluid volume as effectively as the assessments in option B, which directly address potential sources of fluid loss.
The nurse is caring for client who has had a stroke and who has received tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) 4 hours ago in the emergency department. During the nurse's initial assessment, which of the following signs and symptoms are indications of a complication post thrombolytic therapy? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Explanation
A. Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias are not specific complications of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) therapy. While they can occur after a stroke or as a general response to illness, they are not the primary indicators of complications related to thrombolytic therapy.
B. An elevated blood pressure combined with a headache could indicate a hemorrhagic transformation, which is a serious complication after t-PA administration. Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, and these symptoms may signal intracranial hemorrhage.
C. A positive Babinski's sign (extensor plantar response) is often seen in stroke patients as a neurological finding, but it is not specifically an indication of a complication from t-PA therapy. It is more reflective of the brain injury or stroke itself rather than the medication.
D. Nausea and vomiting can be signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which could result from hemorrhage following t-PA therapy. This is a critical sign that requires immediate evaluation to rule out complications such as bleeding.
E. A decreased level of consciousness is a significant red flag and may indicate cerebral hemorrhage or another serious complication related to the administration of t-PA. Monitoring for changes in neurological status is crucial following thrombolytic therapy.
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to give a client who is receiving radiation therapy for lung cancer when teaching about skin care?
Explanation
A. Applying ice packs to the radiated area is not typically recommended, as it can cause additional skin irritation or damage. Skin care after radiation usually focuses on keeping the skin moisturized and protected.
B. Wear loose soft clothing over the treated area is the most important instruction because radiation therapy can cause skin irritation and sensitivity. Wearing loose, soft clothing helps to avoid further friction or irritation on the sensitive skin in the treated area.
C. Avoiding sharing bathrooms or toilets with others for 48 hours after treatment is not a required precaution for external radiation therapy, as there is no significant risk of radiation exposure to others through contact with shared bathroom facilities. This is more applicable to certain types of radioactive implants or internal radiation therapies.
D. While rest is important during cancer treatment, this instruction is more general and not as specific to skin care management during radiation therapy. The primary focus for skin care would be preventing irritation and damage to the skin in the radiated area.
A patient has been diagnosed with terminal cancer and has decided to not continue with treatment. The nurse would recommend a consult with which healthcare specialty?
Explanation
A. Radiation oncology is focused on the use of radiation therapy to treat cancer. Since the patient has decided not to continue with treatment, this specialty would not be the most appropriate recommendation in this situation.
B. Hospice care is designed to provide comfort and support for individuals with terminal illnesses who are no longer seeking curative treatments. It focuses on improving the quality of life, pain management, and providing emotional and spiritual support for the patient and their family. This is the most appropriate referral in the context of a terminal cancer diagnosis where the patient has chosen to discontinue curative treatment.
C. Psychiatry may be helpful if the patient is experiencing significant emotional or psychological distress, but it is not the primary specialty needed for a terminal cancer patient who is opting for comfort-focused care.
D. Surgical oncology would be involved if surgery were part of the cancer treatment plan. Since the patient has chosen not to continue treatment, surgery is unlikely to be appropriate at this time.
A nurse is developing an education program about skin cancer for a community center. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include?
Explanation
A. While it is helpful for individuals to track and monitor skin lesions, keeping a detailed body map may not be a common or necessary recommendation for everyone. Self-monitoring is important, but the focus should be on regular skin checks rather than detailed mapping.
B. The recommended frequency for self-skin exams is monthly, not every 2 months. Regular monthly self-exams are essential for early detection of skin cancer.
C. Tanning beds expose the skin to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which increases the risk of developing skin cancer, especially melanoma. Limiting or avoiding tanning bed use is a key prevention strategy for skin cancer.
D. The sun's UV rays can be strong throughout the day, not just before or after 3pm. The most important guideline for sun safety is to avoid excessive sun exposure, particularly between 10am and 4pm, when UV rays are strongest. Simply avoiding the sun after 3pm is not a sufficient recommendation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with end-stage liver cancer. Which of the following responses is an indication the client is in the denial phase of the grief process?
Explanation
A. "I can't believe the doctor graduated from medical school. He doesn't know a thing about treating cancer?" This statement reflects anger rather than denial. In the anger stage of grief, individuals may direct their frustration toward others, including healthcare providers, feeling that they have been wronged or mistreated.
B. "Even though I am not hurting right now, I don't feel like I have the energy to get out of bed." This statement indicates depression rather than denial. Depression in the grieving process often includes feelings of fatigue, sadness, or a lack of motivation, and is characterized by a sense of hopelessness or resignation.
C. "The doctor has been so good to me. I know he has tried everything he can. It is just my time." This statement indicates acceptance, the final stage of the grief process. Acceptance involves coming to terms with the reality of the situation, recognizing that the end is near, and being at peace with it.
D. "The doctor says I only have a few months to live, but I know he is exaggerating to get me to take my medication." Denial is a defense mechanism in which the person refuses to accept the reality of the situation. In this case, the client is rejecting the doctor's prognosis, believing that the doctor is exaggerating, which is characteristic of the denial phase of grief.
The nurse is viewing orders for a client with a suspected diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse recognizes that which laboratory test order set will most effectively guide the provider to a diagnosis of DIC?
Explanation
A. The diagnostic workup for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) typically includes the measurement of D-dimer, fibrinogen, and fibrin degradation products. D-dimer levels are elevated in DIC due to increased fibrin breakdown, and fibrinogen levels are usually decreased due to consumption. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs) are also elevated in DIC and provide evidence of abnormal clotting and fibrinolysis.
B. While a complete blood count (CBC) and platelet count are part of the evaluation of DIC, they are not sufficient on their own to confirm the diagnosis. The prothrombin time (PT) is helpful but does not provide the most specific information regarding fibrinolysis and clot breakdown, which are crucial in diagnosing DIC.
C. While prothrombin time (PT) and D-dimer are useful in the diagnosis of DIC, fibrin level is not a standard test. The focus is generally on fibrinogen and fibrin degradation products (FDPs) rather than fibrin levels.
D. Although fibrin degradation products and a complete blood count are part of the evaluation, lactic acid is not typically a key test in diagnosing DIC. Lactic acid levels may rise in conditions associated with hypoperfusion or shock but do not specifically diagnose DIC.
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