RN V Adult Medical Surgical S 2019

ATI RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical S 2019

Total Questions : 89

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Question 1: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is hemorrhaging and hypotensive from esophageal variceal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

Verify that the client has adequate IV access.

Choice A rationale:

Administering vasopressin to the client might be necessary to manage the hemorrhage, but before any medication administration, it is crucial to ensure the client has adequate IV access. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor and can help control bleeding from esophageal varices, but its effectiveness relies on IV access to deliver the medication promptly.

Choice B rationale:

Requesting blood from the blood bank is essential for a client experiencing significant bleeding. However, the priority action is to verify IV access to administer any necessary blood products.

Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice. Before initiating any interventions, ensuring the client has appropriate IV access is a priority. Adequate IV access is necessary to administer fluids, medications, or blood products promptly and effectively stabilize the client's blood pressure.

Choice D rationale:

Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action in this situation. While monitoring urine output is important, it should be secondary to addressing the client's hypotension and hemorrhage.


Question 2: View

A nurse is providing teaching about dietary options for a client who has cholelithiasis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Cauliflower is not a good dietary choice for a client with cholelithiasis. Cholelithiasis refers to the presence of gallstones, and certain foods, including cauliflower, can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals.

Choice B rationale:

Increasing the amount of egg yolks in the diet is not advisable for a client with cholelithiasis. Egg yolks are high in cholesterol and can contribute to gallstone formation.

Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice. Desserts like angel-food cake are a better dietary option for a client with cholelithiasis. Angel-food cake is typically low in fat and cholesterol, making it a more suitable choice for those with gallbladder issues.

Choice D rationale:

Eating choice or prime cuts of meat is not recommended for clients with cholelithiasis. These types of meat are often higher in fat, which can trigger gallbladder symptoms.


Question 3: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving brachytherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Explanation

Dispose of the client's feces and urine in a special container.

Choice A rationale:

This is the correct choice. Brachytherapy involves the placement of a radiation source in or near the tumor. To minimize radiation exposure to others, the client's bodily fluids (feces and urine) should be considered radioactive and disposed of properly in a designated container.

Choice B rationale:

While limiting the time of visitors can be a good measure to reduce radiation exposure, it is not the priority intervention. The primary concern is proper handling and disposal of radioactive bodily fluids.

Choice C rationale:

Keeping the client's linens in the room until after removal of the radiation source is not the correct choice. Radioactive linens should be handled and laundered separately, following appropriate safety protocols.

Choice D rationale:

Providing one dosimeter badge for staff to share while caring for the client is not adequate. Each staff member involved in direct care should have their dosimeter badge to monitor their individual radiation exposure levels.


Question 4: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total left hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not cross the client's legs when sitting in the recliner following a total left hip arthroplasty. Crossing the legs can put strain on the operative hip and may increase the risk of dislocation or other complications.
Choice B rationale:
Providing a heating pad to the operative hip is not recommended. Heat can increase blood flow to the area and may lead to increased swelling and potential complications in the postoperative period.
Choice C rationale:


Placing a pillow between the legs when turning the client to their side is the correct action. This technique is known as the "abduction pillow”. or "wedge pillow.”. It helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents the operated leg from crossing the midline, reducing the risk of dislocation and promoting healing.
Choice D rationale:
Having the client lean forward when assisting them out of the bed is not appropriate after a total left hip arthroplasty. Leaning forward can put strain on the hip joint and increase the risk of injury.


Question 5: View

A nurse is caring for a client who had moderate sedation during a procedure. The client's airway is obstructing, and they have an oxygen saturation of 90%. Which of the following interventions is the first action the nurse should take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Preparing an endotracheal tube for intubation is not the first action the nurse should take in this situation. Intubation is an invasive procedure and should be reserved for cases where other, less invasive methods of airway management have failed.

Choice B rationale:

Inserting a plastic oral airway may help maintain the airway in some situations, but it is not the first action to take when the client's airway is obstructing and their oxygen saturation is low.

Choice C rationale:

Providing oxygen using a manual resuscitation bag (bag-valve-mask device) is the correct first action. This allows the nurse to manually assist the client's breathing and deliver oxygen more effectively than just providing supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula or face mask.

Choice D rationale:

Performing a head tilt with a chin-lift is a basic airway maneuver, but it may not be sufficient in this situation, especially if the airway is completely obstructed. Providing oxygen with a manual resuscitation bag takes precedence.


Question 6: View

A nurse is providing information about maintaining a special diet with a client who has irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Increasing the intake of dairy products is not recommended for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) as dairy can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals, particularly if they are lactose intolerant.

Choice B rationale:

Drinking ten glasses of water each day is a helpful recommendation for clients with IBS. Staying hydrated can aid in digestion and help alleviate symptoms like constipation.

Choice C rationale:

Decreasing daily fiber intake to 20 grams is not advisable for IBS management. Adequate fiber intake is essential for maintaining bowel regularity and overall gut health. Instead, it is recommended to focus on soluble fiber and gradually increase fiber intake to avoid exacerbating symptoms.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging the intake of clear carbonated fluids is not ideal for clients with IBS. Carbonated beverages can cause bloating and gas, potentially worsening symptoms in individuals with sensitive digestive systems. It is better to recommend non-carbonated, non-caffeinated fluids for hydration.


Question 7: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who has disseminated herpes zoster (shingles). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Placing the client in a room with negative airflow is not necessary for disseminated herpes zoster (shingles). Shingles are caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus and are not airborne. Standard precautions are sufficient for caring for clients with shingles.

Choice B rationale:

Removing the isolation gown after leaving the client's room is not a necessary intervention for disseminated herpes zoster. The nurse should remove the gown before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of infectious particles.

Choice C rationale:

Applying ketoconazole to the lesions three times per day is not a recommended intervention for disseminated herpes zoster. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication, and shingles are caused by a virus, not a fungus. Antiviral medications such as acyclovir or valacyclovir are used to treat shingles.

Choice D rationale:

This is the correct choice. Providing the client with eye protection for ultraviolet B (UVB) light therapy is an important intervention. Disseminated herpes zoster can affect the eyes, leading to serious complications, including vision loss. UVB light therapy can help manage the symptoms, but eye protection is necessary to prevent damage to the eyes during treatment.


Question 8: View

A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to irrigate the eyes of a client who received a chemical splash on their face. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Completely irrigating one eye before irrigating the second eye is the correct action to take when a client receives a chemical splash on their face. This approach helps prevent the potential spread of the chemical from one eye to the other. Irrigation should be done immediately to flush out the chemical and minimize its harmful effects.

Choice B rationale:

Informing the client to blink their eyes rapidly during the irrigation process is not recommended. Blinking may exacerbate the dispersion of the chemical and could lead to further damage to the eyes. Instead, the client should keep their eyes open during irrigation.

Choice C rationale:

Delaying the irrigation process until the type of chemical in the eyes is identified is not appropriate. Time is critical in minimizing the impact of the chemical on the eyes. Immediate irrigation is essential, regardless of the type of chemical, to remove the substance from the eyes.

Choice D rationale:

Asking the client to count the number of fingers held up by the nurse before irrigating their eyes is not relevant in this situation. The priority is to initiate immediate irrigation to remove the chemical from the eyes. Assessing the client's visual acuity can be done later in the evaluation process after the eyes have been irrigated.


Question 9: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and is receiving therapy with unfractionated heparin. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the therapy is effective?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.

Choice B rationale:

The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.

Choice C rationale:

An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.

Choice D rationale:

The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.


Question 10: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who has long-term liver cirrhosis and a new diagnosis of abdominal ascites. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent complications?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Administering furosemide may be appropriate for managing ascites, but it is not directly related to preventing complications. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention but does not address other potential complications of liver cirrhosis.
Choice B rationale:


Weighing the client weekly is essential to monitor changes in body weight and fluid status, which is crucial in detecting worsening ascites or fluid retention. Sudden weight gain could indicate an exacerbation of ascites or other complications, warranting timely intervention.
Choice C rationale:
Offering the client a high-sodium diet is contraindicated in managing ascites. A high-sodium diet would lead to increased fluid retention and worsen the ascites, potentially exacerbating the client's condition and increasing the risk of complications.
Choice D rationale:
Administering heparin is not relevant to preventing complications in a client with liver cirrhosis and abdominal ascites. Heparin is an anticoagulant, and its use is not indicated for this particular condition.


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