Fundamental Exams

ATI Fundamental Exams

Total Questions : 85

Showing 10 questions Sign up for more
Question 1: View

A nurse in a long-term care facility is observing an assistant personnel (AP) changing the linen for a client who has fecal incontinence. Which of the following actions indicates that the AP understands the principles of infection control?

Explanation

A. Placing the soiled linen on the floor before bagging it is unsanitary and violates infection control principles. It increases the risk of spreading pathogens to other surfaces, potentially contaminating the environment.

B. Placing clean linen that touched the floor in the soiled linen bag prevents cross-contamination and maintains cleanliness. It adheres to infection control standards by ensuring that only soiled items are disposed of appropriately.

C. Holding the soiled linen against her body while carrying it to the linen bag risks transferring pathogens to the caregiver's clothing and skin, compromising personal hygiene and promoting contamination.

D. Shaking the soiled linen to remove any toilet paper remnants is ineffective and hazardous. It disperses potentially infectious particles, increasing the risk of contamination and compromising infection control efforts.


Question 2: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has advanced lung cancer. The client's provider has recommended hospice services for the client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a correct understanding of hospice care?

Explanation

Answer: C. "I should expect the hospice team to help me manage my dyes."

A. "I will have to be admitted to a long-term care facility in order to receive hospice care."
This statement reflects a misunderstanding of hospice care. Hospice services can be provided in various settings, including the client’s home, hospice centers, or even long-term care facilities, but clients are not required to be admitted to a long-term care facility specifically to receive hospice care.

B. "My oncologist will continue to look for a cure for my cancer while I am receiving hospice care."
Hospice care focuses on comfort and quality of life for clients with terminal illnesses, rather than curative treatment. Clients receiving hospice care have typically decided to forego curative treatment to prioritize symptom management and palliative care.

C. "I should expect the hospice team to help me manage my dyes."
This statement indicates an understanding of hospice care. The hospice team provides comprehensive support to manage symptoms, such as pain and discomfort, as well as addressing emotional, spiritual, and psychosocial needs. The goal is to ensure the client’s comfort during the end of life.

D. "Hospice care services are available to patients who are terminally ill regardless of their life expectancy."
This is not entirely accurate. Hospice care is typically available to individuals who have a life expectancy of six months or less, as determined by their healthcare provider. Therefore, life expectancy is an important criterion for hospice eligibility.


Question 3: View

A nurse is admitting a client who has pertussis. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

Explanation

A. Airborne:
Airborne precautions are used for infections transmitted via small droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air for long periods and can be inhaled by others. Examples of diseases requiring airborne precautions include tuberculosis, measles, and chickenpox. Pertussis is not transmitted via the airborne route.

B. Contact:
Contact precautions are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment. Examples include Clostridioides difficile, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), and vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE). Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets rather than contact with contaminated surfaces.

C. Droplet:
Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The nurse should initiate droplet precautions to prevent the transmission of the bacteria to others. These include wearing a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the client, placing the client in a private room or cohorting with another client who has the same infection, and ensuring that visitors wear masks and practice hand hygiene.

D. Protective:
Protective precautions, also known as reverse isolation, are used to protect clients who have compromised immune systems from exposure to pathogens. This precaution is not relevant for a client with pertussis; instead, the focus is on preventing transmission to others through droplet precautions.


Question 4: View

A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. Which finding will alert the nurse to a potential wound dehiscence?

Explanation

A. Chronic drainage of fluid through the incision site:
While chronic drainage of fluid through the incision site can be a sign of wound complications, such as infection or poor wound healing, it is not as specific an indicator of impending wound dehiscence as the patient's report of "something giving way."

B. Report by patient that something has given way:
A patient reporting that something has given way is a significant indicator of potential wound dehiscence. Wound dehiscence refers to the partial or complete separation of the layers of a surgical wound, which can occur due to various factors such as poor wound healing, infection, or increased intra-abdominal pressure. Patients may describe a sensation of "something giving way" or "popping" if the wound starts to separate.

C. Drainage that is odorous and purulent:
Odorous and purulent drainage from an incision site may indicate an infection, which can contribute to wound dehiscence. However, this finding alone may not necessarily indicate immediate wound dehiscence.

D. Protrusion of visceral organs through a wound opening:
Protrusion of visceral organs through a wound opening is a severe complication known as evisceration, which is the most advanced stage of wound dehiscence. While this finding is indicative of a significant wound complication, it typically occurs after the initial separation of wound layers. Therefore, it is not an early sign that would alert the nurse to potential wound dehiscence


Question 5: View

A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and reports foot pain. The nurse should evaluate the client for which of the following alterations as Indications that the client has an infection? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

A. Localized edema:
Localized edema, especially when accompanied by erythema (redness), warmth, and tenderness, can be indicative of an infection in a client with diabetes mellitus. Infections in diabetic patients, particularly those affecting the feet, can lead to localized inflammation and swelling.

B. An increase in RBCs:
An increase in red blood cells (RBCs), known as erythrocytosis, is not typically associated with an infection. Erythrocytosis may occur in conditions such as polycythemia vera or chronic hypoxemia but is not a typical marker of infection.

C. Bradycardia:
Bradycardia, a heart rate slower than the normal range, is not typically associated with infections. Infections often cause tachycardia (an increased heart rate) as part of the body's systemic inflammatory response.

D. An increase in platelets:
An increase in platelets, known as thrombocytosis, is not typically associated with infections. Thrombocytosis can occur in response to various factors, including inflammation, but it is not a specific marker of infection in diabetic clients with foot pain.

E. An increase in neutrophils:
An increase in neutrophils, known as neutrophilia, is a common response to infection. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the body's immune response to bacterial infections. In diabetic clients with foot pain, an elevated neutrophil count may suggest the presence of an infection, as the body mobilizes these cells to combat the invading pathogens.


Question 6: View

A nurse is providing home safety information for an older adult client who uses a cane. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

A. You should advance your weak leg forward to the cane, then move your strong leg:
Advancing the weak leg first and then the strong leg is not the proper technique for using a cane. The correct method is to hold the cane on the stronger side and move the cane and the weaker leg forward together, followed by the stronger leg.

B. You should advance the cane 12 to 14 inches before taking a step:
Advancing the cane 12 to 14 inches is too far. The cane should be advanced approximately 6 to 10 inches to maintain balance and support.

C. The cane’s height should be the same as the distance from the floor to the crest of your hip bone:
The correct height for a cane is when the handle is at the level of the wrist when the user is standing with the arm hanging naturally at their side. This typically corresponds to the distance from the floor to the greater trochanter (hip bone). This ensures the cane provides the right amount of support and reduces the risk of strain or imbalance.

D. You should hold the cane in your weak hand when ambulating:
The cane should be held in the stronger hand, not the weak hand. This allows the cane to provide support to the weaker side of the body and helps to balance the weight distribution more effectively.


Question 7: View

A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the lowing client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

A. "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back."
Sleeping on the back can actually worsen obstructive sleep apnea because gravity can cause the tongue and soft tissues to obstruct the airway more easily. The recommended position to reduce apneic episodes is to sleep on the side.

B. "I’ll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night."
Taking a sleeping pill can relax the muscles of the throat, which might worsen sleep apnea by increasing the likelihood of airway obstruction during sleep.

C. "If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."
Weight loss is a key factor in reducing the frequency and severity of obstructive sleep apnea. Excess weight, particularly around the neck, can increase the risk of airway obstruction during sleep.

D. "I’ll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night."
While a humidifier can make the air more comfortable to breathe, it does not directly reduce the number of apneic episodes. It might help with symptoms like dry mouth or nasal congestion but is not a primary treatment for obstructive sleep apnea.


Question 8: View

A nurse is educating a client who is experiencing sleep disturbances and desires to decrease caffeine intake. Which of the following beverages should the nurse recommend?

Explanation

A. Chocolate milk:
Chocolate contains caffeine, which can contribute to sleep disturbances. It is not a recommended beverage for someone looking to decrease caffeine intake.

B. Diet cola:
Cola contains caffeine, even in diet versions, which can contribute to sleep disturbances. Therefore, it is not suitable for decreasing caffeine intake.

C. Brewed iced tea:
Brewed iced tea contains caffeine, which can interfere with sleep. It is not a suitable option for someone trying to reduce caffeine consumption.

D. Lemon-lime soda:
Lemon-lime sodas typically do not contain caffeine, making them a better choice for someone looking to reduce their caffeine intake and improve sleep.


Question 9: View

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained blood loss. Which of the following is a manifestation of hypovolemia?

Explanation

A. Increased blood pressure:
In hypovolemia, the body experiences a significant loss of blood volume, which leads to a reduction in the amount of blood available to circulate through the vessels. This causes a drop in blood pressure, known as hypotension, rather than an increase. The body tries to compensate for the lower blood volume by constricting blood vessels and increasing heart rate, but this typically isn't sufficient to increase blood pressure to normal levels.

B. Decreased heart rate:
The body's natural response to hypovolemia includes an increase in heart rate, known as tachycardia, as the heart attempts to pump the remaining blood more efficiently to vital organs. This compensatory mechanism aims to maintain cardiac output despite the decreased blood volume.

C. Dyspnea:
Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can occur in many medical conditions, including heart failure and respiratory issues. While it can be seen in severe cases of hypovolemia, particularly if the condition leads to shock and subsequent multi-organ failure, it is not a primary or specific sign of hypovolemia.

D. Weak pulse:
A weak pulse is a primary and direct manifestation of hypovolemia. Due to the reduced volume of circulating blood, the heart has less blood to pump with each contraction, leading to a weaker pulse. This symptom indicates a decreased perfusion pressure, which is characteristic of hypovolemia. The body's compensatory mechanisms include vasoconstriction and an increased heart rate, but these measures often result in a pulse that is rapid but weak.


Question 10: View

A nurse who is left-handed is preparing to perform a straight catheterization for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Raise the bed to a comfortable height:
Raising the bed to a comfortable height is essential for proper body mechanics and preventing back strain. It ensures the nurse can perform the procedure efficiently and safely.

B. Stand on the left side of the bed:
While a left-handed nurse might prefer to stand on the left side for better access, this choice depends on the room layout and client position. Standing on the side where the nurse is most comfortable is essential, but it is not the primary action compared to ensuring proper bed height.

C. Raise the side rail on the working side of the bed:
Raising the side rail on the working side of the bed could obstruct the nurse's access to the client and is not generally recommended during procedures requiring close access to the client.

D. Use the non-dominant hand to insert the catheter:
The dominant hand, in this case, the left hand, should be used to insert the catheter for better control and precision. The non-dominant hand is typically used to hold the genitalia and provide stability.


You just viewed 10 questions out of the 85 questions on the ATI Fundamental Exams Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams.

Subscribe Now

learning

Join Naxlex Nursing for nursing questions & guides! Sign Up Now