Maternal Newborn-2023

ATI Maternal Newborn-2023

Total Questions : 49

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Question 1: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation and has been unable to control her gestational diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate a prescription from the provider for the client?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Repaglinide is an oral medication used to control blood sugar levels in adults with type 2 diabetes. It is not typically used in pregnant women, especially those unable to control their gestational diabetes with diet and exercise.
Choice B rationale
Insulin is the most common medication used to control blood sugar levels in pregnant women, especially those unable to control their gestational diabetes with diet and exercise.
Choice C rationale
Glipizide is an oral medication used to control blood sugar levels in adults with type 2 diabetes. It is not typically used in pregnant women, especially those unable to control their gestational diabetes with diet and exercise.
Choice D rationale
Acarbose is an oral medication used to control blood sugar levels in adults with type 2
diabetes. It is not typically used in pregnant women, especially those unable to control their gestational diabetes with diet and exercise.


Question 2: View

The nurse caring for the pregnant patient understands that which hormone is essential for maintaining pregnancy?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Estrogen is a hormone that plays a crucial role in pregnancy. It helps develop the placenta and triggers increased blood volume and flow throughout pregnancy. However, it is not the primary hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a key role in labor and breastfeeding. It causes contractions during labor and helps eject milk during breastfeeding. However, it is not the primary hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced during pregnancy. It is made almost exclusively in the placenta and its main function is to maintain the corpus luteum in the ovary and stimulate it to produce progesterone. However, hCG itself is not the primary hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Progesterone is the primary hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy. It prevents the uterine muscles from contracting prematurely, which could lead to a miscarriage or preterm birth.


Question 3: View

A 28-year-old female client is in the second stage of labor in the maternity ward.

Exhibits

A nurse is caring for a client who is in the second stage of labor. The nurse observes retraction of the fetal head against the maternal perineum.

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

Explanation

The client is most likely experiencing Normal labor progression. The retraction of the fetal head against the maternal perineum, regular and progressing contractions, and full dilation of the cervix are all signs of normal labor progression.
Actions: The nurse should:
1. Encourage the client to push during contractions. This will help the baby move down the birth canal.
2. Monitor fetal heart rate. This is crucial to ensure the baby is not in distress.

Parameters: The nurse should monitor:
1. Frequency of contractions. This will help assess the progress of labor.
2. Fetal heart rate. Any abnormalities could indicate fetal distress, which would require immediate medical attention.


Question 4: View

A nurse is preparing an in-service program about preventing medication errors when transcribing a prescription.
The nurse is using a dosage example of two tenths of a milligram.

 Which of the following examples should the nurse use to show appropriate transcription of this dosage? 

Explanation

Choice A rationale
The correct transcription of two tenths of a milligram is 0.2 mg. This format avoids any potential confusion that could lead to a medication error.
Choice B rationale
While 0.20 mg is technically correct, it is not the preferred format. The trailing zero after the decimal point is unnecessary and could potentially lead to confusion.
Choice C rationale
20 mg is not correct. This is 100 times the intended dose of two tenths of a milligram, and could lead to a serious medication error.
Choice D rationale
2 mg is not correct. This is 10 times the intended dose of two tenths of a milligram, and could lead to a medication error.


Question 5: View

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has macrosomia and whose mother has diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following newborn complications should the nurse recognize as the priority focus of care?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Hypomagnesemia, or low magnesium levels, is not typically a primary concern for newborns of mothers with diabetes mellitus. While it can occur, it is not the priority focus of care.
Choice B rationale
Hyperbilirubinemia, or high bilirubin levels, can lead to jaundice in newborns. However, it is not the primary concern in newborns of mothers with diabetes mellitus. These newborns are more at risk for hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale
Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can occur in newborns, but it is not the primary concern in newborns of mothers with diabetes mellitus. These newborns are more at risk for hypoglycemia.


Question 6: View

A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia.
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Vaginal discharge is common during pregnancy due to the increased production of estrogen and greater blood flow to the pelvic area. It is not typically a sign of preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Elevated blood pressure is a primary symptom of preeclampsia. If a pregnant client has high blood pressure, it should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder.
Choice C rationale
Joint pain is not typically a symptom of preeclampsia. It could be related to other conditions or simply a result of the physical changes of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Increased urine output is not typically associated with preeclampsia. In fact, decreased urine output could potentially be a sign of kidney problems related to preeclampsia.


Question 7: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following explanations about this test should the nurse provide to the client?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is a screening test that measures the level of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother’s blood during pregnancy. It is used to assess the likelihood of certain birth defects, including neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
Choice B rationale
The MSAFP test does not assess fetal lung maturity. Other tests, such as amniocentesis, can be used to assess this.
Choice C rationale
The MSAFP test does not identify Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Rh incompatibility is typically determined through blood typing and antibody screening.
Choice D rationale
While the MSAFP test can provide valuable information about the health of the fetus, it does not assess various markers of fetal well-being. It is specifically used to screen for certain birth defects.


Question 8: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation.

The client reports headache, dizziness, and blurred vision for 1 week.

The nurse notes 3+ edema in lower extremities and deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) 3+ with positive clonus.

The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 140 with minimal variability.

The nurse is reviewing the client’s electronic medical record to develop a plan of care.

Which condition is the client most likely experiencing, what are two actions the nurse should take to

Explanation

Choice A rationale
The client’s symptoms of headache, dizziness, blurred vision, 3+ edema in lower extremities, deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) 3+ with positive clonus, and a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 with minimal variability are indicative of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. It usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby. To address this condition, the nurse should: Monitor the client’s blood pressure regularly. Administer prescribed medications to control blood pressure and prevent seizures. The nurse should monitor the following parameters to assess the client’s progress: Blood pressure readings: Regular monitoring can help detect any sudden increases, which could indicate worsening preeclampsia. Urine protein levels: Protein in the urine is a common sign of preeclampsia and should be monitored regularly.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension is a possibility, but it does not fully explain the client’s symptoms. While chronic hypertension can cause headaches and dizziness, it does not typically cause 3+ edema in the lower extremities or positive clonus. Furthermore, chronic hypertension would have been present before the pregnancy or diagnosed before the client reached 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice C rationale
While the client’s symptoms of headache, dizziness, and blurred vision could suggest a neurologic issue, the presence of 3+ edema in the lower extremities and positive clonus are more indicative of preeclampsia. Neurologic status would be monitored as part of the care for a client with preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Liver function studies would be relevant if there were symptoms or signs suggesting liver involvement such as upper right abdominal pain, nausea or vomiting, or jaundice. However, the client’s symptoms are more indicative of preeclampsia.


Question 9: View

A nurse is attending to a first-time pregnant woman who is at term.

She is experiencing contractions but is unsure if she is in labor.

Which of the following should the nurse identify as a labor sign?

Explanation

Choice D rationale
Changes in the cervix, including effacement (thinning) and dilation (opening), are reliable signs of true labor. During true labor, contractions cause the cervix to thin and open to prepare for the passage of the baby. This is in contrast to Braxton Hicks contractions, or “false labor,” which are irregular and do not result in changes to the cervix.
Choice A rationale
The position of the presenting part can provide information about the progress of labor and the likely need for interventions, but it is not a definitive sign of labor.
Choice B rationale
Membrane rupture, or “water breaking,” can occur before or during labor. However, not all women experience a noticeable rupture of membranes, and sometimes the fluid can leak slowly, making it less noticeable.
Choice C rationale
A regular contraction pattern can be a sign of labor, but contractions can also occur in patterns during false labor. Therefore, contraction pattern alone is not a definitive sign of labor.


Question 10: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is 39 weeks pregnant and in active labor.

The nurse detects the fetal heart tones above the client’s umbilicus at the midline.

Which of the following positions should the nurse suspect the fetus is in?

Explanation

A. In a cephalic (head-down) presentation, fetal heart tones are typically heard below the umbilicus.
B. A posterior position refers to the fetal back facing the mother's back, but it does not affect the heart tone location significantly.
C. A transverse lie would place the fetal heart tones at the lateral sides of the abdomen, not above the umbilicus.
D. In a frank breech position (buttocks presenting first), fetal heart tones are usually heard above the umbilicus, as the fetal head is positioned in the upper uterus.


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