Ati N 144 Exam 1 Fundamental Concepts for Nursing Practice

Ati N 144 Exam 1 Fundamental Concepts for Nursing Practice

Total Questions : 34

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Question 1: View

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who is receiving intravenous fluids at 150 mL/hr. Upon assessment, the nurse notes crackles, shortness of breath, and jugular vein distention. Based on this data, which complication of IV fluid therapy does the nurse anticipate?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Fluid volume deficit is a condition in which the body loses more fluid than it gains, resulting in dehydration, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances. It is not a complication of IV fluid therapy, but rather a reason for initiating it.

Choice B reason: Fluid volume excess is a condition in which the body retains more fluid than it needs, resulting in edema, hypertension, and heart failure. It is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy, especially in older adults who have reduced renal function and cardiac output. The nurse's assessment findings of crackles, shortness of breath, and jugular vein distention are indicative of fluid overload and pulmonary congestion.

Choice C reason: Speed shock is a systemic reaction that occurs when a substance is administered too rapidly into the bloodstream, causing adverse effects such as chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and cardiac arrest. It is not a complication of IV fluid therapy, but rather a risk associated with IV medication administration.

Choice D reason: Pulmonary embolism is a blockage of one or more pulmonary arteries by a blood clot, fat, or air, causing impaired gas exchange, chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. It is not a complication of IV fluid therapy, but rather a possible outcome of venous thromboembolism, which can be prevented by using anticoagulants and mechanical devices.

15.6 Applying the Nursing Process – Nursing Fundamentals


Question 2: View

What is the main goal for the RN as a teacher?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because the RN as a teacher aims to promote health literacy, self-management, and shared decision-making among patients and their families. By helping people to become empowered to take care of their health, the RN can facilitate positive health outcomes and prevent complications.

Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because the RN as a teacher does not focus on explaining what nurses do, but rather on educating patients about their health conditions, treatments, and self-care. While it is important for the patient to understand the role of the nurse, this is not the main goal of teaching.

Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because the RN as a teacher does not limit teaching to discharge instructions. Teaching is an ongoing process that starts from admission and continues throughout the continuum of care. Discharge instructions are only one component of teaching that summarizes the key information and actions that the patient needs to follow after leaving the hospital.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because the RN as a teacher does not aim to teach patients how to give themselves treatments to get them out of the hospital quicker, but rather to help them achieve optimal health and wellness. Teaching patients how to give themselves treatments is part of the skill development aspect of teaching, but it is not the main goal. The main goal is to help patients understand the rationale, benefits, and risks of their treatments, and to support them in adhering to their treatment plans.


Question 3: View

Which of the following clients has a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis?

Explanation

Choice A reason: William, who exercises three times a week, does not have a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis. Exercise is actually beneficial for bone health, as it stimulates bone formation and reduces bone loss. Exercise also improves muscle strength, balance, and coordination, which can prevent falls and fractures.

Choice B reason: Samantha, who has a family history of osteoporosis, does not have a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis. Family history is a genetic factor that cannot be changed or controlled. Having a parent or sibling with osteoporosis increases the risk of developing the condition, especially if they have had a fracture.

Choice C reason: Juanita, who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, has a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis. Smoking is a lifestyle factor that can be changed or controlled. Smoking increases the risk of osteoporosis by reducing the blood supply to the bones, decreasing the absorption of calcium, and lowering the levels of estrogen, which protects the bones.

Choice D reason: Tori, who is postmenopausal at age 40, does not have a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis. Menopause is a natural process that occurs when the ovaries stop producing estrogen, which leads to bone loss and increased risk of fractures. Menopause cannot be prevented or reversed, but its effects on bone health can be managed with hormone therapy, calcium, and vitamin D supplements.


Question 4: View

Which statement suggests that the RN understands delegation in the concept of time management?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because it shows that the RN understands delegation as a way of managing time effectively. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks to other members of the health care team who are competent and qualified to perform them. By working with the LPN and nursing assistant on dividing up patient care tasks, the RN can ensure that the tasks are done safely, efficiently, and according to the scope of practice of each team member.

Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because it shows that the RN does not understand delegation as a way of managing time effectively. Working overtime until everything is finished is not a sustainable or productive strategy, as it can lead to fatigue, burnout, and errors. The RN should prioritize the tasks that are most important and urgent, and delegate the tasks that can be done by others.

Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because it shows that the RN does not understand delegation as a way of managing time effectively. Checking to make sure that the tasks are done correctly is part of the supervision and evaluation of delegation, but it is not the main goal of delegation. The main goal of delegation is to optimize the use of resources and skills of the health care team, and to provide quality care to the patients. The RN should trust and respect the abilities of the LPN and nursing assistant, and only intervene if there is a problem or a concern.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because it shows that the RN does not understand delegation as a way of managing time effectively. Completing every nursing intervention or report by the end of the shift is not always possible or realistic, especially in a busy and dynamic health care environment. The RN should focus on the outcomes and quality of care, rather than the quantity of tasks. The RN should also communicate and collaborate with the other members of the health care team, and hand over any unfinished tasks to the next shift.


Question 5: View

The RN asks the client to demonstrate proper use of his inhaler. This is an example of which domain of learning?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Cognitive domain of learning involves the mental processes of acquiring, storing, and applying knowledge. It includes skills such as remembering, understanding, analyzing, and evaluating. An example of cognitive learning is the RN asking the client to explain the purpose and effects of his inhaler.

Choice B reason: Affective domain of learning involves the emotional aspects of learning, such as attitudes, values, beliefs, and feelings. It includes skills such as receiving, responding, valuing, and committing. An example of affective learning is the RN asking the client how he feels about using his inhaler.

Choice C reason: Psychomotor domain of learning involves the physical aspects of learning, such as movement, coordination, and manipulation. It includes skills such as imitating, practicing, adapting, and creating. An example of psychomotor learning is the RN asking the client to demonstrate proper use of his inhaler.

Choice D reason: Kinesthetic domain of learning is not a recognized domain of learning, but rather a learning style that refers to the preference of learning by doing or experiencing. Kinesthetic learners tend to learn best by engaging in physical activities, such as hands-on tasks, simulations, and experiments.
Psychomotor Therapy domains | Therapy, Body image, Learning disabilities


Question 6: View

A client presents in the emergency room with a penetrating eye injury. The object is still present in the eye. Which nursing action is priority?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because stabilizing the object is the priority nursing action for a penetrating eye injury. Stabilizing the object prevents further damage to the eye structures and reduces the risk of infection and bleeding. The nurse should use a protective shield or cup to cover the eye and secure the object in place, and avoid applying any pressure or movement to the eye.

Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because applying anesthetic drops is not the priority nursing action for a penetrating eye injury. Anesthetic drops may provide some relief from pain and discomfort, but they do not address the underlying problem of the object in the eye. Anesthetic drops should only be used under the direction of a physician, and after the object has been stabilized.

Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because removing the object is not the priority nursing action for a penetrating eye injury. Removing the object is a surgical procedure that should only be performed by a qualified physician in a sterile environment. Attempting to remove the object by the nurse may cause more harm to the eye and increase the risk of complications.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because applying eye ointment is not the priority nursing action for a penetrating eye injury. Eye ointment may interfere with the visualization and assessment of the eye, and may also contaminate the wound and cause infection. Eye ointment should only be used under the direction of a physician, and after the object has been stabilized.


Question 7: View

A client continues to report post-surgical incision pain at a level of 9 out of 10 after pain medication is given. The next dose of pain medicine is not due for another hour. What should the critically thinking nurse do first?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not the correct answer because offering to notify the health care provider after morning rounds are completed is not the first action that the critically thinking nurse should take. The nurse should act promptly and advocate for the patient's pain management needs, rather than delaying the communication with the health care provider.

Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because exploring other options for pain relief is the first action that the critically thinking nurse should take. The nurse should assess the patient's pain level, location, quality, and contributing factors, and use a multimodal approach to pain management that includes pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions, such as ice, heat, distraction, relaxation, or massage.

Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because discussing the surgical procedure and reason for the pain is not the first action that the critically thinking nurse should take. The nurse should focus on alleviating the patient's pain, rather than educating the patient about the surgery. The nurse can provide information and reassurance to the patient after the pain is controlled.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because explaining to the patient that nothing else has been ordered is not the first action that the critically thinking nurse should take. The nurse should not dismiss the patient's pain or imply that the patient has no other options for pain relief. The nurse should collaborate with the patient and the health care provider to find the best pain management plan for the patient.


Question 8: View

A client is 24 hours post-op after having a colon resection (part of the colon is removed and the healthy ends are sewn back together). His abdominal incision is dry and intact, but the nurse notes that bowel sounds have not returned. What condition is this client likely experiencing?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because paralytic ileus is a condition in which the intestinal motility is decreased or absent, resulting in the inability to pass gas or stool. It is a common complication of abdominal surgery, as the manipulation of the bowel can cause inflammation and nerve damage. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bowel obstruction, such as abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting, and pain.

Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because Clostridium difficile colitis is a condition in which the normal flora of the colon is disrupted by antibiotic therapy, allowing the overgrowth of a toxin-producing bacteria that causes inflammation and diarrhea. It is not a common complication of abdominal surgery, but rather a risk associated with prolonged hospitalization and antibiotic use.

Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because constipation is a condition in which the stool is hard, dry, and difficult to pass. It is not a common complication of abdominal surgery, but rather a side effect of opioid analgesics, which can slow down the bowel movements. The nurse should encourage the client to increase fluid and fiber intake, and use stool softeners as prescribed.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because fecal impaction is a condition in which a large mass of stool is stuck in the rectum, preventing the passage of gas or stool. It is not a common complication of abdominal surgery, but rather a result of chronic constipation, dehydration, or immobility. The nurse should assess the client for signs of impaction, such as abdominal cramping, rectal pressure, and leakage of liquid stool.


Question 9: View

A nurse is educating a client about bariatric surgery. Which of the following statements by the client indicate a need for further teaching?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not the correct answer because this statement by the client indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions and guidelines that are necessary after bariatric surgery. A liquid/pureed diet and limited fluid intake are recommended to prevent complications such as nausea, vomiting, dehydration, and dumping syndrome.

Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because this statement by the client indicates that the client does not understand the importance of a thorough evaluation by the surgeon prior to the procedure. Bariatric surgery is a major surgery that involves significant risks and benefits, and requires careful consideration of the client's medical history, physical condition, psychological status, and readiness for lifestyle changes. The surgeon should assess the client's eligibility, suitability, and expectations for the surgery, and provide informed consent and education.

Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because this statement by the client indicates that the client understands the basic principles and types of bariatric surgery. Bariatric surgery can be classified into restrictive, malabsorptive, or combined procedures, depending on how they affect the size of the stomach and the absorption of food. The most common types of bariatric surgery are gastric bypass, sleeve gastrectomy, and adjustable gastric banding.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because this statement by the client indicates that the client understands the long-term implications and commitments of bariatric surgery. Bariatric surgery is not a quick fix or a magic solution for obesity, but rather a tool that helps the client achieve and maintain weight loss and improve health outcomes. The client should be aware that bariatric surgery requires lifelong changes in diet, exercise, medication, supplementation, and follow-up care.


Question 10: View

The RN has completed an assessment on a client. What should the nurse do next?

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not the correct answer because reassessing the patient is not the next step after completing an assessment. Reassessment is done periodically or when there is a change in the patient's condition, but not immediately after the initial assessment.

Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because writing nursing interventions is not the next step after completing an assessment. Nursing interventions are the actions that the nurse plans and implements to achieve the desired outcomes for the patient. They are based on the nursing diagnoses, which are derived from the analysis of the assessment data.

Choice C reason: This is the correct answer because analyzing cues is the next step after completing an assessment. Analysis is the process of identifying patterns, relationships, and trends in the assessment data, and comparing them with the normal and expected findings. Analysis helps the nurse to identify the patient's problems, needs, strengths, and risks.

Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because creating SMART goals is not the next step after completing an assessment. SMART goals are the specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound outcomes that the nurse and the patient agree on. They are based on the nursing diagnoses, which are derived from the analysis of the assessment data.


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